Physics Electromagnetic Waves

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New answer posted

a month ago

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V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

f = 3GHz = 3 * 109 Hz

λ v a c u u m = v f = 3 * 1 0 8 m / s 3 * 1 0 9 / s = 1 0 1 m = 0 . 1 m

λ v a c u u m = λ v a c u u m μ m e d i u m = 0 . 1 μ m e d i u m

μ m e d i u m = μ r r = 1 * 2 . 2 5 = 1 . 5

μ m e d i u m = 0 . 1 m 1 . 5 = 0 . 0 6 6 7 m = 6 . 6 7 c m = 6 6 7 * 1 0 2 c m

New answer posted

a month ago

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V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

(A) Source of microwave frequency   => Magnetron

(B) Source of infrared frequency                =>Vibration of atoms and molecules

(C) Source of Gamma rays                           => Radioactive decay of nucleus

(D) Source of x-rays                                      => inner shell electrons.

 

New answer posted

a month ago

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P
Payal Gupta

Contributor-Level 10

l = 1 2 c ε 0 E 0 2 8 4 π ( 1 0 ) 2 * 1 2 = 1 4 * c * 1 c 2 μ 0 * E 0 2 E 0 = 2 1 0 μ 0 c π x = 2

New answer posted

a month ago

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A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

The EM waves originate from an accelerating charge. The charge moving with uniform velocity produces steady state magnetic field.

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a month ago

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A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

According to modified Ampere's law

? B . d I = μ 0 ( I C + I D )

For Loop  L 1 I C 0 and I D = 0

For Loop  L 2 I C = 0 and I D 0

Due to  KCLIC=ID

New answer posted

a month ago

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P
Payal Gupta

Contributor-Level 10

S p e e d o f l i g h t C = w k = 1 . 5 * 1 0 1 1 0 . 5 * 1 0 3 = 3 * 1 0 8 m / s

So, E0 = B0 C

= 2 * 10-8 * 3 * 108

= 6v/m

Direction will be along z – axis

New answer posted

a month ago

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P
Payal Gupta

Contributor-Level 10

λ1=6MHz=6*106Hz

λ1=Cυ1=3*1086*106=50m

λ2=Cυ2=10*106=3*10810*106=30m

Wavelength bandwidth

=|λ1λ2|=20m

New answer posted

a month ago

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V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

l = 1 2 C ε 0 E 0 2 = 1 2 C ε 0 ( C B 0 ) 2 = 1 2 C 3 ε 0 B 0 2

B 0 = 2 l ε 0 C 3

= 2 * 0 . 0 9 2 8 . 8 5 * 1 0 1 2 * 2 7 * 1 0 2 4

= 2 . 2 7 * 1 0 8 T

New answer posted

2 months ago

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V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

As we know that direction of propagation ( p ^ )  of wave is given as

p ^ = E ^ * B ^ = i ^ * k ^ = ( j ^ )

New answer posted

2 months ago

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A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

Work done is equal to change in K.E.

S o W 1 + W 2 = 1 2 M ( 0 . 8 g h ) 2 0 W1 -> work done by mg

m g h + W 2 = 1 2 m * 0 . 6 4 g h  W2 -> work done by air friction

W 2 = 0 . 3 2 m g h m g h = 0 . 6 8 m g h              

W2 = -0.68 mgh

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