Physics NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12th Chapter Six
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New answer posted
4 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a long answer type question as classified in NCERT Exemplar
The component of magnetic field perpendicular the plane = Bcosθ
But when there is a motional emf then it is e = Blv=vBcosθd
And current Is I= but when discuss about force F= llB
And component of force which only act is fcosθ
So force is IBd(cosθ) = where v=dx/dt
Also component of weight is mg cosθ
So by applying newton second law of motion
m
On solving this equation we get
V=
New answer posted
4 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a long answer type question as classified in NCERT Exemplar
Since, the magnetic field is brought to zero in time? t, the magnetic flux linked with the ring also reduces from maximum to zero. This, in turn, induces an emf in ring by the
phenomenon of EMI. The induces emf causes the electric field E generation around the
ring.
The induced emf= electric field E (2 πb) (Because V =E d ) . (i)
By Faraday'slaw of EMI
The induced emf= rate of change of magnetic flux
=rate of change of magnetic field * area= ……. (ii)
From (i) and (ii)
2 =emf=
Since, the charged ring experienced a electric force= QE
This force try to rotate the co
New answer posted
4 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a long answer type question as classified in NCERT Exemplar
applying ohm's law
I=E/R=d
I= dQ/dt or dQ/dt= d
Q (t1)-Q (t2)= [ t1- t2]
t1= L1 t1
= I1in [ ]
New answer posted
4 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a long answer type question as classified in NCERT Exemplar
B= (ouside the paper)
Flux= = in
Induced emf= e/R=I
Induced current = = = in
New answer posted
4 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a long answer type question as classified in NCERT Exemplar
At t=o t=T/8=
the rod will make contact with side BD.at any time 0
So magnetic flux through area ODQ is
=B

I=e/R
And R= so I=
Same result for other side too
New answer posted
4 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a long answer type question as classified in NCERT Exemplar
Let us assume that the parallel wires at are y= 0, i.e., along x-axis and y= l. At t= 0, XY has x = 0 i.e., along y-axis.
(i) Let the wire be at x x = (t) at time t.
The magnetic flux linked with the loop is given by
φ = B.A= Bacos0= BA
magnetic flux = B(t)(lx(t))
total emf = emf due to change in field along XYAC+ the motional emf across XY
E= - = - lx(t)- B(t)lv(t)
Electric current in clockwise direction is I= E/r
So force is F= ilBsin90=ilB
Force = [- ]i
Applying newton 2nd law
m = -
(ii) =0
Substituting in eqn 1
+ =0
=o
V= Aexp )=0
(iii) p= I2R= exp(-2
New answer posted
4 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a long answer type question as classified in NCERT Exemplar
Let us assume that parallel wires at are y=0 i.e along x-axis and y=d.at t=0, AB has x=0 i.e along y-axis and moves with a velocity v
Motional emf across AB is = (B0sinwt)vd (-j)
Emf due to change in field along OBAC = -B0wcoswt x (t)d
Total emf in the circuit = emf due to change in field (along OBAC)+ the motional emf across AB= - B0d {wx coswt+v sinwt}
Electric current in clockwise direction is given by = (wxcoswt+vsinwt)
The force acting on the conductor is given by F= iLbsin90=iLb
Substituting the values
F= (wx coswt+v sinwt) * d * B0si
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