Showing 19967 results for "MHTCET 2018 question paper"

1 View Posted a month ago

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<p>In GITAM GAT Aptitude &amp; English, questions come from:</p><ul><li>Grammar</li><li>Vocabulary</li><li>Reading comprehension</li><li>Logical reasoning</li><li>Elementary quantitative problem solving</li></ul>

6 Views Posted a month ago

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<p>The paper includes</p><ul><li>30 questions in Mathematics</li><li>20 in Physics, 20 in Chemistry</li><li>20 in Quantitative Aptitude &amp; Analytical Reasoning</li><li>10 in English</li></ul>

3 Views Posted a month ago

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<p>Clock and calendar questions can include angle calculations, coincidence and right-angle timing, mirror-clock problems, odd-day and leap-year questions, and faulty clocks that gain or lose time. These test a candidate's ability to work accurately with rates and remainders.</p>

4 Views Posted a month ago

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<p>CLAT does not publish a fixed number of clock and calendar questions, since the UG exam is largely passage-based. The topic is tested indirectly within Logical Reasoning passages rather than as standalone questions.</p>

3 Views Posted a month ago

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<p>Questions come as passages with a legal principle and a set of facts. You must apply the principle correctly. This includes spotting exceptions and handling changed facts.</p>

3 Views Posted a month ago

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<p>Questions can include direct calculations, fraction-decimal conversions, remaining-quantity problems and common-data caselets. These test a candidate's ability to calculate accurately.</p>

3 Views Posted a month ago

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<p>CLAT does not publish a fixed number for this topic. The UG exam is largely passage and data-based. The topic is tested indirectly within the wider Quantitative Techniques section.</p>

3 Views Posted a month ago

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<p>Environmental law questions can include constitutional classification, principle-application, statute identification and modified-rule questions. These test a candidate's ability to apply legal principles to new fact situations.</p>

3 Views Posted a month ago

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Mridula Sharma,

Contributor-Level 6

<div><div dir="auto" tabindex="0" data-message-author-role="assistant" data-message-id="84460014-e2c2-4f4b-82da-107336b815ff" data-message-model-slug="gpt-5-6" data-turn-start-message="true"><div><div><p data-start="2109" data-end="2389" data-is-last-node="" data-is-only-node="">The exam consists of questions based on subjects and areas in the PGIMER BSc Nursing syllabus and exam pattern. Candidates should prepare each section according to its weightage.</p></div></div></div></div>&... View more

1 View Posted Yesterday

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<p>CAT does not have a fixed number of questions from Surds and Indices. Usually, one or no direct questions may come.</p>

1 View Posted Yesterday

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<p>There were 16 RC questions in CAT 2025 slot 1 question paper. The questions were moderate but needed careful reading.</p>

99 Views Posted 7 years ago

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You need to study the basics of English literature, like the developments and types of poetry, various types of novels, and famous dramas and their types. Also, study the very generalised aspects of English literature which seem equivalent to the degree level.

139 Views Posted 7 years ago

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<a href="https://www.shiksha.com/science/cucet-exam-pattern" style='word-wrap:break-word;'>https://www.shiksha.com/science/cucet-exam-pattern</a>
Check the link to know about the same.

17 Views Posted 2 years ago

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<p>Candidates can check the answers to all questions asked in JEE Advanced question papers on the official website - jeeadv.ac.in. The answers to all questions are officially uploaded and are called the answer keys. These answer skeys have the correct answers to all the questions that come in the exam.</p><p>The JEE Advanced answer keys can be used to check the correct answers to all questions asked in the exam. This enables the candidates to calculate the probable score in the exam even before the result is declared. Candidates can estimate their performance in the exam and their chances of qualifying the JEE Advanced ex... View more

8 Views Posted 2 years ago

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<p>No. Candidates are not allowed to leave the Karnataka PGCET exam centre before the last bell rings. Immediately after the last bell rings, invigilator will collect the answer sheet and provide a replica of the OMR sheet for future references. Candidates have to sign the sheet before leaving the PGCET exam centre to acknowledge receiving the OMR answer sheet. PGCET has an exam duration of 120 minutes.</p>

18 Views Posted 2 years ago

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<p>A psychometric test is conducted to assess the power of decision-making, and personality. The marks obtained in this test are not counted for final merit list.</p>

8 Views Posted 2 years ago

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<p>The distribution of questions in the Numerical Ability section of IBPS Clerk prelims exam is given below.</p><table><tbody><tr><th width="241"><strong>Topics</strong></th><th width="230"><strong>No. of Questions</strong></th></tr><tr><td width="241"><p>Data Interpretation (Bar/Tabular)</p></td><td width="230"><p>05</p></td></tr><tr><td width="241"><p>Data Interpretation (Caselet)</p></td><td width="230"&... View more

1 View Posted 2 years ago

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<p>The distribution of questions in the Quant section of IBPS Clerk is given below.</p><table><tbody><tr><th width="241"><strong>Topics</strong></th><th width="230"><strong>No. of Questions</strong></th></tr><tr><td width="241"><p>Data Interpretation (Bar/Tabular)</p></td><td width="230"><p>05</p></td></tr><tr><td width="241"><p>Data Interpretation (Caselet)</p></td><td width="230"><p>05</p>&... View more

6 Views Posted 2 years ago

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<p>The distribution of questions in the Reasoning section of IBPS Clerk exam is given below.</p><p>Puzzles : 05</p><p>Puzzles : 05</p><p>Seating Arrangements : 05</p><p>Seating Arrangements 05</p><p>Alpha-numeric Series 05</p><p>Blood Relation: 03</p><p>Direction &amp; Distance: 03</p><p>Pair Formation 01</p><p>Odd One Out: 01</p><p>Inequality: 04-05</p><p>Order &amp; Ranking: 01</p>

5 Views Posted 2 years ago

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<p>The distribution of questions in English Language section is given below.</p><ul><li>Reading Comprehension (Industrial Colour): 08-09</li><li>Fillers: 03-04</li><li>Para Jumbles: 05</li><li>Error Detection 04</li><li>Sentence Improvement: 02-03</li><li>Word Swap : 05</li><li>Word Usage: 03</li></ul>

5 Views Posted 2 years ago

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<p>The best way to contact the GNIHM JET helpline for questions or issues typically includes the following methods:</p><ul><li>Phone Call: Use the official helpline number provided on the GNIHM website. This allows for immediate communication.</li><li>Email: If the helpline is busy or if your issue requires detailed explanation, sending an email can be effective. Include your application number and specific query for a prompt response.</li><li>Official Website Contact Form: If available, use any contact forms on the GNIHM website to submit your inquiry directly.</li><li>Social Med... View more

22 Views Posted 2 years ago

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<p>The students must note that the number of objective and subjective type questions asked in the MPBSE 10th exams may vary subject to subject. However, in most of the papers, 30 objective type questions are asked and 15 to 20 subjective type questions are asked. To have a fair idea about the same, the students must download the MP Board 10th sample papers. They can also check previous years MPBSE 10th question papers. Students should cover the entire syllabus to perform better in the exam.</p>

4 Views Posted a year ago

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<p>The Regency All India Entrance Test consists of around 100 to 150 questions. The exact number can vary each year depending on the specific exam structure determined by the Regency Institute of Hospitality Management.</p><ul><li>Questions are usually presented in a multiple-choice format.</li><li>The exam covers various sections, including English, General Knowledge, Logical Reasoning, and Hospitality-related topics.</li></ul>

5 Views Posted a year ago

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<p>There will be total of&nbsp;<strong>200 questions</strong>&nbsp;which will be asked in Rajasthan JET Agriculture exam. Since there will be five subjects from which questions will be asked in the exam.&nbsp;<strong>40 questions</strong>&nbsp;will be asked from each subject.&nbsp;</p><p><strong>4 marks</strong>&nbsp;will be awarded for each correct answer and&nbsp;<strong>1 mark</strong>&nbsp;will be deducted for each wrong answer. Applicants are advised to attempt the carefully in exam as there is negative marking in the exam.&nbsp;</... View more

7 Views Posted a year ago

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<p>The question may vary from easy to moderate to difficult. The entrance test analyses the fundamentals of the chemistry subjects and topics. AJEE question paper will comprise theoretical and conceptual-based questions.</p>

7 Views Posted a year ago

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<p style="text-align: justify;">There will be 180 general multiple choice questions (Non-crop specific) in part A and 40 crop specific (Field crop and Horticultural crops in equal proportion) questions in part B following the common syllabi of Agriculture and Horticulture faculties. Candidates have to attempt all the questions in part A and any 20 questions from part B.</p>

7 Views Posted a year ago

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<p style="text-align: justify;">As per the past year question analysis, the key topics on which the questions might include are English grammar, vocabulary, general knowledge, teaching aptitude, and logical reasoning. It's essential to cover these areas comprehensively during preparation.</p>

6 Views Posted a year ago

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<p>The section-wise distribution of questions in SSC Stenographer CBT exam is given below.</p><table><tbody><tr><th>Parts</th><th>Subject</th><th>Number of questions</th><th>Maximum marks</th></tr><tr><td><p>I</p></td><td><p>General Intelligence &amp; Reasoning</p></td><td><p>50</p></td><td><p>50</p></td></tr><tr><td><p>II</p></td><td><p>General Awareness</p></td><td><p>50</p>... View more

11 Views Posted a year ago

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<p>There are 98 questions in total. 54 questions for reading and writing. 44 questions for math. It is very fast. The modules have a set time limit. Much better than the old long test.</p>

8 Views Posted a year ago

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<p>In the GD section of AUSAT, questions are asked from Static GK and current affairs. The questions can be asked from business, economy, trade, politics, science &amp; tech, IT, marketing, branding, awards, arts, literature, books, international events, history and entertainment.</p>

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