Class 11th
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New answer posted
6 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a multiple choice answer as classified in NCERT Exemplar
(b) A is given a transverse displacement. Through the elastic support the disturbance is transferred to all the pendulums.

A and C are having same length hence they will be in resonance, because their time period of oscillation.
T= hence frequency is same. So amplitude of A and C will be maximum.New answer posted
6 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a multiple choice answer as classified in NCERT Exemplar
(d) y= asinwt + bcoswt
a=Asin and b= Acos
a2+b2=A2sin2 +A2cos2
A=
y=Asin +Acos
= Asin (wt+ )
dy/dt= Awcos (wt+ )
So it is proportional to displacement . so follows SHM
New answer posted
6 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a multiple choice answer as classified in NCERT Exemplar
(c) x= acoswt
Y= asinwt
Squaring and adding above eqns
x2+y2=a2, this is the equation of circle
New answer posted
6 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a multiple choice answer as classified in NCERT Exemplar
(c) Consider the diagram in which a liquid column oscillates . in this case, restoring force acts on the liquid due to gravity.
Restoring force f = weight of liquid column of height 2y
t=-A = -2A
f
motion is SHM with force constant k= 2A
T= = 2
So time period is independent upon density of liquid.
New question posted
6 months agoNew answer posted
6 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a multiple choice answer as classified in NCERT Exemplar
(d) For motion to be in SHM acceleration of the particle must be proportional to negative of displacement.

a , so y has to linear.
New answer posted
6 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a multiple choice answer as classified in NCERT Exemplar
(b) y = sin3wt
= [3sinwt-4sin3wt]/4
dy/dt= [ ]/4
4dy/dt=3wcoswt-4 [3wcoswt]
4
= -
is not proportional to y. hence it is not SHM.
New answer posted
6 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a multiple choice answer as classified in NCERT Exemplar
Velocity =dy/dt=
= 3 (-2w) [-sin ( )]
= 6wsin
Acceleration a = dv/dt=
= -4w2 [3cos ( )]
A = -4w2y hence acceleration is directly proportional to displacement so it follows SHM
w'= 2w
2
T'= 2 =
New answer posted
6 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a short answer type question as classified in NCERT Exemplar
By considering the diagram

1=
2=
As it is clear given that amplitude time period being equal but phases being different. Now for first pendulum at any time t
1= 2
So sin = sin(wt+ )
wt+
where o=2o is the angular amplitude of first pendulum . for the second pendulum , the angular displacement is one degree , therefore 2= and negative sign is taken to show for being left to mean position.
-
Sin(wt+ )=-1/2
So (wt+ 2)=-
So by making their difference
(wt+ 2)-( 1)=7 =4
( 2- 1)= 1200
New answer posted
6 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a short answer type question as classified in NCERT Exemplar
Consider the diagram of the spring block system. It is a SHM with amplitude of 5cm about the mean position

Spring constant k=50N/m
Mass =2kg
Angular frequency w=
Y (t)= Asin (wt+ )
Y (0)=Asin (w )
sin =1
y (t)=Asin (wt+ = Acoswt
A=5cm w=5rad/s
Y=5sin5t
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