Class 12th

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New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

Kindly go through the solution

Based on theory.

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 4 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

l 1 l 2 = 4 1                

l m a x = ( l 1 + l 2 ) 2 = l 1 + l 2 + 2 l 1 l 2

l m a x + l m i n l m a x l m i n = 5 x

1 2 * l 2 ( 1 + l 1 l 2 ) l 1 l 2 = 5 x

1 2 1 4 = 1 x x = 4               

When electric field vector is completely removed and incident on Brewster's angle then only refraction takes place.

 

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 1 View

J
Jaya Sharma

Contributor-Level 10

The two points in a bar magnet are its North pole and South pole. A bar magnet has magnetic field lines around it. These points give these field lines a travelling direction. For example, the magnetic field lines emerge form the North pole of the bar magnet and then they curve toward South pole. This makes a complete loop of magnetic field lines around the bar magnet.

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

we know,   C = 1 μ 0 o = 3 * 1 0 8 , G i v e n , r = 1

v = 1 μ 0 r o μ r = 2 * 1 0 8            

3 * 1 0 8 2 * 1 0 8 = r μ r               

= ( 1 . 5 ) 2 = r μ r              

μ r = 2 . 2 5               

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 3 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

Number of solution of the equation |cos x| = sin x for x [ 4 π , 4 π ]  will be equal to 4 times the number of solutions of the same equation for x [ 0 , 2 π ]

Graphs of y = |cos x| and y = sin x are as shown below.

Hence, two solutions of given equation in [0, 2]

 total of 8 solutions in [4, 4]

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

V = 210 sin 3000 t

ω = 3000

X L = ω L = 3 0                

X C = 1 ω c = 4 0 3                

t a n ? = V L V C V R = X L X C R                

t a n ? = 0 . 1 7 ? = t a n 1 ( 0 . 1 7 )                

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 3 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

For x 2 + α x = β > 0 x R  to hold, we should have   α 2 4 β < 0

If α = 1 , β  can be 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 i.e., 6 choices

If a  = 4, b can be 5 or 6 i.e., 2 choices

hence total favourable outcomes

= 6 + 5 + 4 + 2 + 0 + 0 = 17

Required probability =  1 7 3 6

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 5 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

If n is number of trials, p is probability of success and q is probability of unsuccess then,

Mean = np and variance = npq.

Here np + npq = 24         …. (i)

np. npq = 128                   …. (ii)

and q = 1 – p                    …… (iii)

From eq. (i), (ii) and (iii) :

= ( 3 2 + 3 2 * 3 1 2 ) . 1 2 3 2      

= 3 3 2 2 8

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

  B = η μ 0 l

 if l ->2l

η n 2                

B 1 = n 2 μ 0 2 l

B 1 = B                

               

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 9 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

  ? a + b + c = 0 …….(i)

then

a + c = b

then

( a + c ) * b = b * b ¯

  a * b + c * b = 0 …….(ii)

Now (S1) : 

| a * b + c * b | | c | = 6 ( 2 2 1 )

c o s ( A C B ) = 2 3

A C B = c o s 1 2 3

S ( 2 )  is correct

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