Class 12th
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5 months agoContributor-Level 10
A ring magnet is a type of strong and permanent magnet which is made from the alloy of iron, boron and neodymium. These are the part of rare-earth magnet family which is the reason behind their the strongest magnetic properties amongst all other permanent magents.
New answer posted
5 months agoContributor-Level 10
A U-shaped magnet is another type of bar magnet. This is known as a horseshoe magnet since its shapes resembles the object called horseshoe. The two ends of this U-shaped magnet are its magnetic poles. Configration of these magnetic poles creates a concentrated magnetic field. This concentrated magnetic field makes it much more stronger than a simple and straight bar magnet.
New answer posted
5 months agoContributor-Level 10
When electric field vector is completely removed and incident on Brewster's angle then only refraction takes place.
New answer posted
5 months agoContributor-Level 10
The two points in a bar magnet are its North pole and South pole. A bar magnet has magnetic field lines around it. These points give these field lines a travelling direction. For example, the magnetic field lines emerge form the North pole of the bar magnet and then they curve toward South pole. This makes a complete loop of magnetic field lines around the bar magnet.
New answer posted
5 months agoContributor-Level 10
Number of solution of the equation |cos x| = sin x for will be equal to 4 times the number of solutions of the same equation for
Graphs of y = |cos x| and y = sin x are as shown below.
Hence, two solutions of given equation in [0, 2]
total of 8 solutions in [4, 4]
New answer posted
5 months agoContributor-Level 10
For
If
If a = 4, b can be 5 or 6 i.e., 2 choices
hence total favourable outcomes
= 6 + 5 + 4 + 2 + 0 + 0 = 17
Required probability =
New answer posted
5 months agoContributor-Level 10
If n is number of trials, p is probability of success and q is probability of unsuccess then,
Mean = np and variance = npq.
Here np + npq = 24 …. (i)
np. npq = 128 …. (ii)
and q = 1 – p …… (iii)
From eq. (i), (ii) and (iii) :
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