Government & Defence Entrance Exam
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New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 10
Error recognition
filling in the blanks
Vocabulary
Spellings
Grammar
Sentence Structure
Synonyms
Antonyms
sentences Completion
Phrases
Idiomatic use of Words
Comprehension, etc.
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 10
The distribution of questions in RRB ALP Reasoning section is given below:
- Coding – 2 Questions
- Number Series – 2 Question
- Letter Series – 2 Questions
- Blood Relation
- Syllogisms
- Sitting Arrangement
- Mirror Image
- Hidden Figure
- Figure Counting
- Dice
- Missing Number – 1 Question
- Alphabet Test – 2 Questions
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 10
The section-wise number of good attempts in RRB ALP exam is given below.
| RRB ALP Exam Analysis 2024, 25th Nov 2024, Difficulty Level & Good Attempts | ||
| Name of Tests | Good Attempts | Difficulty Level |
| General Science | 17 – 18 | Moderate |
| Mathematics | 16 – 18 | Moderate |
| General Intelligence & Reasoning | 21 – 23 | Easy to Moderate |
| General Awareness & Current Affairs | 8 – 9 | Easy to Moderate |
| Overall | 62 – 68 | Easy to Moderate |
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 10
The overall difficulty level of RRB ALP CBT 1 exam was moderate. The General Science section was Moderate. The Maths section was moderate. The General Intelligence & Reasoning and General Awareness sections were easy to moderate.
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 8
The highest rank attainable through CDs is the rank of general which is a 4-stared officer position.
it is a general in the army, Admiral in the Navy and Air Chief Marshal in the Air Force.
and the lowest rank is lieutenant which is a 2 stared officer position.
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 8
The questions will consist of objective-type questions.
the total duration for the exam is 4 hours and is for a total of 200 marks for OTA.
The question papers for General Knowledge will be set in bilingually in Hindi and English. The exam will comprise 2 subjects, English and General Knowledge, and each subject consists of 100 marks.
The time duration for each subject is 2 hours.
and for each correct answer, the candidate is awarded 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 marks are deducted and 0 is awarded for umattempted.
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 8
The CDS 1 application form 2025 will be available from December 11 to 31, 2024. The CDS 1 2025 exam will be conducted on April 13, 2025. CDS 2 notification will be released in May 2025, the last date for application will be 17th June 2025 and the exam will be conducted on 14, September 2025.
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 10
IBPS Clerk 2024 prelims cut off is given below.
| IBPS Clerk Prelims Cut Off 2024 | ||
|---|---|---|
| States/ UT | General | EWS/SC/OBC/ST |
| Andhra Pradesh | 77.5 | |
| Arunachal Pradesh | 71 | |
| Assam | 83.75 | OBC- 82.25 SC- 81.25 |
| Bihar | 79.5 | OBC- 79.5 |
| Chhattisgarh | 77 | OBC-77 |
| Chandigarh | 81.50 | |
| Delhi | 80.75 | SC-75.25 OBC- 78.25 |
| Gujarat | 77.25 | ST- 67.75 |
| Goa | OBC- 68 | |
| Himachal Pradesh | ST- 83 | |
| Haryana | 83 | |
| J & K | 86.25 | |
| Jharkhand | 83.5 | |
| Kerala | OBC- 81 | |
| Madhya Pradesh | 73 | SC- 74.5 |
| Maharashtra | 73 | ST- 69.50 |
| Manipur | OBC-70.25 | |
| Meghalaya | ST- 73.50 | |
| Odisha | 86.75 | |
| Punjab | 81.25 | SC- 70 OBC-79.75 |
| Rajasthan | 83.25 | EWS- 83.25 |
| Karnataka | 64.75 | |
| Telangana | 68.25 | |
| Uttar Pradesh | 79 | OBC- 79 SC- 70.75 ESM- 56 |
| Uttarakhand | ||
| West Bengal | 87.75 | SC- 80.25 |
| Tamil Nadu | OBC- 63.25 | |
| Tripura | 80.25 | ST- 71 |
| Sikkim | 41 | |
| Lakshadweep | ||
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 10
AFCAT 1 2024 vacancy break-up is given below.
| Entry Type | Post Code | Male | Female | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|
AFCAT | Flying | 28 | 10 | 38 |
AFCAT Ground Duty Technical | AE (L) | 104 | 11 | 125 |
AE (M) | 45 | 05 | 50 | |
AFCAT Ground Duty Non Technical | Admin | 44 | 06 | 50 |
LGS | 11 | 02 | 13 | |
Accounts | 11 | 02 | 13 | |
Ground Duty Non Technical | Education | 08 | 02 | 10 |
Ground Duty Non Technical | Weapon Systems WS Branch | 15 | 02 | 17 |
Meteorology Entry | Meteorology | 09 | 02 | 11 |
NCC Special Entry | Flying | 10% seats out of CDSE vacancies for PC and 10% seats out of AFCAT vacancies for SSC. | ||
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 10
AFCAT 2 2024 vacancy break-up is given below.
| Entry Type | Post Code | Male | Female | |||||
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
AFCAT | Flying | 18 | 12 | |||||
AFCAT Ground Duty Technical | AE (L) | 88 | 23 | |||||
AE (M) | 36 | 09 | ||||||
AFCAT Ground Duty Non Technical | Admin | 43 | 03 | |||||
LGS | 13 | 14 | ||||||
Accounts | 10 | 11 | ||||||
Ground Duty Non Technical | Education | 07 | 02 | |||||
Ground Duty Non Technical | Weapon Systems WS Branch | 14 | 02 | |||||
Meteorology Entry | Meteorology | 08 | 02 | |||||
NCC Special Entry | Flying |
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