Class 12th
Get insights from 12k questions on Class 12th, answered by students, alumni, and experts. You may also ask and answer any question you like about Class 12th
Follow Ask QuestionQuestions
Discussions
Active Users
Followers
New answer posted
5 months agoContributor-Level 10
(c)
For 2011, the following table can be created.
| Population | Literacy Rate | No. of Literates |
Men | 20000 | 30% | 6000 |
Women | 13000 | 40% | 5200 |
Boys | 12000/ (1.5)3 | 15% | 1555 |
Girls | 10000/ (1.25)3 | 50% | 2560 |
Total |
|
| 15315 |
Hence, option 3.
New answer posted
5 months agoContributor-Level 10
(d)
In 2012, the population of women = 1.1 * 13000 and that of boys = 12000/ (1.05)2
Literacy rate of women and boys in 2012 is 20 percent and 50 percent respectively.
The ration of literate women to literate boys in 2012
Hence, option (d)
New answer posted
5 months agoContributor-Level 10
(c) rather than calculating for each year, we can deduce that since the number of men is significantly greater than the other three, the maximum number of literacy rate for men.
In 2003, the literacy rate for men is 50 percent, which is the highest for his category.
Considering that the number of men in the year 2013 is 40000, the number of literate men will be 20000 which is much higher as compared to the literate men in other years.
Hence, option (c)
New answer posted
5 months agoContributor-Level 10
(b)
Number of literates = Population * Literacy rate
Thus, if the percentage change in the population is a% and that in the literacy rate is b%, then the percentage change in the number of literates = (a + b +ab/100)%
From 2013 to 2014, the population of girls has increased by 25 percent and literacy rate has changed from 10 percent to 25 percent
i.e. (45 - 10) * 100/10 = 350 percent increase in literacy rate
Percentage change in the number of literate girls = 25 + 350 + (25 * 350)/100 = 462.5 percent
New answer posted
5 months agoContributor-Level 10
(a) In 2016, £1= Rs. 42 (old rupees)
However, by 2017 the value of the rupee will decline by 10 percent.
£1 will now be worth a higher amount of rupees.
In terms of pounds in 2017, we have, £0.9 = Rs. 42 (new rupees)
£1 = 42/0.9 = Rs. 46.6
Hence, option (a)
New answer posted
5 months agoContributor-Level 10
(b)
The trade deficit has increased by 6 percent in 2015 as compared to the previous year 2014.
Now, Trade deficit in 2015 = 1.06 * trade deficit in 2014
Trade deficit in 2014 = 12320/1.06
= Rs. 11622 crores
In 2014, 1 pound = Rs. 38
The trade deficit in 2014 in million pounds
= 11622/38
= £305.8 crores
= £3058 million … (1 crore = 10 million)
Hence, option (b).
New answer posted
5 months agoContributor-Level 10
(d)
The trade deficit has increased by 5 percent in 2014 as compared to the previous year 2013.
Trade deficit in 2014
(Exports in 2014 – Imports in 2014) = 1.05 * (Exports in 2013 – Imports in 2013)
Now, Imports in 2014 = Imports in 2013 = z
28950 – z = 1.05 * (Exports in 2023 – z)
We have two variables in one equation.
The data is insufficient to answer the question.
Hence, option (d).
New answer posted
5 months agoContributor-Level 10
(c)
We can see that the slope of the line from year 2015 to 2016 if the lowest. Lesser the slope, lesser is the percentage change. (However, note that though the slope of the line for 2013 and 2015 is the same, the percentage change for the two years is not.)
Hence, option (c).
Taking an Exam? Selecting a College?
Get authentic answers from experts, students and alumni that you won't find anywhere else
Sign Up on ShikshaOn Shiksha, get access to
- 66k Colleges
- 1.2k Exams
- 681k Reviews
- 1800k Answers


