Ncert Solutions Maths class 12th

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New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 6 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

83. The probability of getting a six in a throw of die is 1/6 and not getting a six is 5/6.

Let p = 1/6 and q = 5/6

The probability that the 2 sixes come in the first five throws of the die is

5C2
(16)2 (56)3=10* (5)3 (6)5

∴ Probability that third six comes in the sixth throw =

=10* (5)3 (6)5*16=10*125 (6)6=10*12546656=62523328

New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 3 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

82. Let p and q respectively be the probabilities that the player will clear and knock down the hurdle.

P=56q=1p=156=16

Let X be the random variable that represents the number of times the player will knock down the hurdle.

Therefore, by binomial distribution, we obtain

P(X=x)=nCx
pnxqx

P (player knocking down less than 2 hurdles) =P(X<2)

=P(X=0)+P(X=1)=10C0

(q)0(p)10+10C1
(q)(p)9=(56)10+10.16.(56)9=(56)9[56+106]=52(56)9=(5)102*(6)9

New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

81. Total number of balls in the urn = 25

Balls bearing mark 'X' = 10

Balls bearing mark 'Y' = 15

p = P (ball bearing mark 'X') =10/25 = 2/5

q = P (ball bearing mark 'Y') =15/25 = 3/5

Six balls are drawn with replacement. Therefore, the number of trials are Bernoulli trials.

Let Z be the random variable that represents the number of balls with 'Y' mark on them in the trials.

Clearly, Z has a binomial distribution with n = 6 and p =2/5.

P=(Z=z)=nCz
pnzqz

P (all will bear 'X' mark) =P(Z=0)=6C0
(25)6=(25)6

P (not more than 2 bear 'Y' mark) =P(Z2)

=P(Z=0)+P(Z=1)+P(Z=2)=6C0
(p)6(q)0+6C1
(p)5(q)1+6C2
(p)4(q)2=(25)6+6(25)5(35)+15(25)4(35)2=(25)4[(25)2+6(25)(35)+15(35)2]=(25)4[425+3625+13525]=(25)4[17525]=7(25)4

P (at least one ball bears 'Y' mark) =P(Z1)=1P(Z=0)

=1(25)6

P (equal number of balls with 'X' mark and 'Y' mark) =P(Z=3)

=6C3
(25)3(35)3=20*8*2715625=8643125

New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 5 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

80. It is given that 90% of people are right handed.

p=P (right handed) =90%=90100=910 and q=P (left handed) =1910=110

Using Binomial distribution,

Probability more than 6 people are right handed is given by

=r=71010cr

prqnr

=r=71010cr

(910)r(110)10r

Hence, probability of having at most 6 right handed people:

=1P (more than 6 people are right handed)

=1r=71010cr

(910)r(110)10r

New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

79. Given, Men having grey hair =5%

Women having grey hair =0.25%

Total people with grey hair = (5+0.25)% =5.25%

Probability that the selected person's hair is of male =55.25=11.05=100105=2021

New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

78. i. Here, Sample space of given condition,

S={(B,B),(B,G),(G,B),(G,G)}

Let, E: denotes the event both children are male

F: denotes the event at least one of the children is a male

EF={(B,B)}

P(EF)=14

Here, P(E)=14 and P(F)=34

P(E/F)=P(EF)P(F)=1434=13

ii. Let, A: event that both children are female

B: event that elder child is female

A={G,G} P(A)=14

B={(G,G),(G,B)} P(B)=24=12

AB={(G,G)} P(AB)=14

P(A/B)=P(AB)P(B)

=1412=14*2=12

New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

77. A is a subset of B

AB=A

P (AB)=P (BA)=P (A)

=P (B/A)=P (BA)P (A)=1

AB0

(AB)=0

P (B/A)=P (BA)P (A)=0

New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

76. The repeated tossing of a die are Bernoulli trials. Let X represent the number of times of getting 5 in 7 throws of the die.

Probability of getting 5 in a single throw of the die, p = 1/6

q=1p=116=56

Clearly, X has the probability distribution with n=7 and P=16

P(X=x)=nCx
qnxpx=7Cx
(56)7x.(16)x

P (getting 5 exactly twice) =P(X=2)

=7C2
(56)5.(16)2=21.(56)5.136=(712)+(56)5

New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

75. Let X represent the number of winning prizes in 50 lotteries. The trials are Bernoulli trials.

Clearly, X has a binomial distribution with n = 50 and p = 1/100

q=1p=11100=99100P(X=x)=nCx
qnxpx=50Cx
(99100)50x.(1100)x

P (winning at least once) =P(X1)

=1P(X<1)=1P(X=1)=150C0

(99100)50=11.(99100)50=1(99100)50

P (winning exactly once) =P(X=1)

=50C1

(99100)49.(1100)1=50(1100)(99100)49=12(99100)49

P (at least twice) =P(X2)

=1P(X<2)=1P(X1)=1[P(X=0)+P(X=1)]=[1P(X=0)]P(X=1)=1(99100)5012.(99100)49=1(99100)49.[99100+12]=1(99100)49.(149100)=1(149100)(99100)49

New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 3 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

74. The repeated guessing of correct answers from multiple choice questions are Bernoulli trials. Let X represent the number of correct answers by guessing in the set of 5 multiple choice questions.

Probability of getting a correct answer is, p = 1/3

q=1p=113=23

Clearly, X has a binomial distribution with n=5 and P=13

P=(X=x)=nCx
qnxpx=5Cx
(23)5x.(13)x

P (guessing more than 4 correct answers) =P(X4)

=P(X=4)+P(X=5)=5C4
(23).(13)4+5C5
(13)5=5.23.181+1.1243=10243+1243=11243

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