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New answer posted

2 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

Since current is in phase with voltage, it means circuit is in resonance, so we can write

f =  1 2 π L C = 1 2 π ( 0 . 5 * 1 0 3 ) * ( 2 0 0 * 1 0 6 )  

f = 1 0 4 2 π 1 0 5 * 1 0 2 H z         [ T a k i n g π = 1 0 ]  

New answer posted

2 months ago

0 Follower 3 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

According to Young's double slit experiment, we can write

β = λ D d Δ β = β 2 β 1 = λ d Δ D

λ = d Δ β Δ D = 1 * 1 0 3 * 3 * 1 0 5 5 * 1 0 2 = 6 0 * 1 0 8 m = 6 0 0 n m

New answer posted

2 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

According to Nuclear activity, we can write

N 0 t 1 2 N 0 2 t 1 2 N 0 4 t 1 2 N 0 8 t 1 2 N 0 1 6 = ( 0 . 0 6 2 5 ) N 0  

Time required = 4 *  t 1 2 = 2 0 y r s

New answer posted

2 months ago

0 Follower 3 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

According to question, we can write

l = 2 π r r = l 2 π  

I 1 = m l 2 3 , a n d I 2 = m r 2 2 = m l 2 8 π 2

I 1 I 2 = m l 2 3 * 8 π 2 m l 2 = 8 π 2 3

 

New answer posted

2 months ago

0 Follower 4 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

According to definition of displacement current, we can write

I d = ε 0 d ? d t = ε 0 d ( E S ) d t = ε 0 d ( V l S ) d t = ε 0 S l ( d V d t )  

l = 8 . 8 5 * 1 0 1 2 * 4 0 * 1 0 4 * 1 0 6 4 . 4 2 5 * 1 0 6 8 * 1 0 3 m  

New answer posted

2 months ago

0 Follower 3 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

According to Work energy theorem, we can write

K f K i = W E l e c t r i c F o r c e 1 2 m v 2 1 2 m v 0 2 = e V v 2 = v 0 2 2 e V m  

v 2 = ( 6 . 0 * 1 0 5 ) 2 2 * 1 . 6 * 1 0 1 9 9 * 1 0 3 1 = 3 2 4 1 2 8 9 * 1 0 1 0 = 1 9 6 9 * 1 0 1 0 V = 1 4 3 * 1 0 5 m / s  

New answer posted

2 months ago

0 Follower 5 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

According to Kirchhoff's Law, we can write

 

-20 + 2000I + 600 * 5I = 0  I = 2 0 5 0 0 0 A  

Reading of voltmeter = 2000I = 2000 *  2 0 5 0 0 0 = 8 v o l t  

New answer posted

2 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

According to Concept of resonance tube, we can write

λ 4 + e = l 1 a n d 3 λ 4 + e = l 2 λ 2 = l 2 l 1 V 2 ν = l 2 l 1  

l 2 = v 2 ν + l 1 = 3 3 6 4 0 0 + 0 . 2 0 = 0 . 8 4 + 0 . 2 0 = 1 . 0 4 m = 1 0 4 c m  

New answer posted

2 months ago

0 Follower 3 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

Since velocity does not change, so acceleration will be zero.

mg = FB + Fv 4 π 3 r 3 ρ g = 4 π 3 r 3 σ g + 6 π η r v  

v = 2 r 2 ( ρ σ ) g 9 η = 2 * 0 . 1 * 0 . 1 * 1 0 6 * ( 1 0 4 1 0 3 ) * 1 0 9 * 1 . 0 * 1 0 5  

h = 4 0 0 2 g = 2 0 m  

 

New answer posted

2 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

Least  count of Vernier = 0.1mm

Reading of Vernier Scale = 5 * 0.1 = 0.5mm

The corrected diameter of sphere = Main Scale Reading + Vernier Scale reading + Zero correction = 1.7 + 0.05 + 0.05 = 1.8cm = 180 * 10-2 cm.

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