Class 12th

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New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 1 View

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

Kindly go through the solution

New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 1 View

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

Kindly go through the solution

New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 1 View

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

Kindly go through the solution

New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 4 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

This is a Short Answer Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Explanation- in the given figure let C be the amperian loop then,

 

Q p H . d l = Q p B m 0 .dl

 between B and dl is less than 90 degree so

Q p H . d l = . Q p B μ 0 dl>0

So magnetic field from south pole to north pole inside the bar magnet

So according to ampere law

p Q p H . d l =0

 

p Q p H . d l = H . d l  +  H . d l  = 0

Q p H . d l >0, so p Q H . d l <0,

It will be so if the angle between H and dl is more than 90 degree so cos θ  is negative . it means H must run from north to south pole .

New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 11 Views

P
Payal Gupta

Contributor-Level 10

This is a short answer type question as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Mutual inductance of coil A with respect to B

M21=N2 2/I1 = 10 - 2 2 = 5mH

N1 1= M12I2= 5mH (1A)= 5mWb

New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 1 View

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

Kindly go through the solution

New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 1 View

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

Kindly go through the solution

New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 10 Views

P
Payal Gupta

Contributor-Level 10

This is a short answer type question as classified in NCERT Exemplar

The back emf in solenoid force in solenoid is U a maximum rate of change of current . so maximum back emf will be obtained between 5s

Since the back emf at t = 3s also the rate of change of current at t= 3s, s= slope of OA from t=0s to t= 5s=1/5 A/sec

So we have if u= L1/5 (for t= 3s, dI/dt=1/5) (L is a constant). Applying e=-LdI/dt

For 5s

At t= 7s, u1=-3e

For 10s

For t>30s, u2=0

Thus back emf at t=7s,15s and 40s are -3e, e/2 and 0 respectively.

New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 8 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

This is a Short Answer Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Explanation- I= moment of inertia of the bar magnet

m= mass of bar magnet

l= length of magnet about an any passing through its centre and perpendicular to its

length

M= magnetic moment of the magnet

B= uniform magnetic field in which magnet Is oscillating

T= 2 π I M B

I= ml2/12

When magnet is cut into two equal pieces

I1= m ( l / 2 ) 2 2 ( 12 ) = ml2/96= I/8

Magnetic dipole moment M'= M/2

Its time period oscillation is T'= 2 π I M B = 2 π I / 8 ( M / 2 ) B = 2 π 2 I M B

T'=T/2

New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 5 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

This is a Short Answer Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Explanation- τ = M B s i n θ

τ = p E s i n θ

From these two we can say that

M B s i n θ = = p E s i n θ

pE= MB

E=cB

pcB=MB

p=M/c

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