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New answer posted
7 months agoContributor-Level 10
Using lens maker formula, we can write
1/f = (µ/µ? - 1) (1/R? - 1/R? )
µ = µ? ⇒ 1/f = 0 ⇒ f → Infinite
New answer posted
7 months agoContributor-Level 10
The decrement in length is more for metal strip-A than metal strip-B, so the combined system bend towards the left.
New answer posted
7 months agoContributor-Level 10
Using de-Broglie equation:
λ = h/p = h/√ (2mK) = h/√ (2meV)
λ ∝ 1/√m
λ? /λ? = √ (m? /m? ) = √ (1.00727/0.00055) = √1831 ≈ 43:1
New answer posted
7 months agoContributor-Level 10
A = Activity = λN = (ln (2)/t? /? ) N
N = (1.5*10? ³ / 198) * 6*10²³
A = (0.693 / (2.7*24*3600) * (1.5*10? ³ / 198) * 6*10²³ disintegration/s
A ≈ 1.32 * 10¹³ Bq = (1.32*10¹³ / 3.7*10¹? ) Ci ≈ 357 Ci
New answer posted
7 months agoContributor-Level 10
As we know that for damping Oscillation
A = A? e? / (²? ) ⇒ t? /? = ln (2)2m/b = (0.693 * 2 * 500)/20 = 34.65 s
New answer posted
7 months agoContributor-Level 10
d = √ (2hT R) + √ (2hR R) = 2√ (2hR) (assuming towers are identical)
h = d²/ (8R) = (45*10³)²/ (8*6400*10³) ≈ 39.55 m
New answer posted
7 months agoContributor-Level 10
As we know that magnetic force acting on a charge particle will be
F = q (v * B)
W = F.dl
Since force and displacement will be always perpendicular so work done is always zero.
New answer posted
7 months ago
Contributor-Level 10
Using conservation of linear momentum, we can write
P? = P? ⇒ mv = (M+m)V
Using conservation of Mechanical energy, we can write
½ (M+m)V² = (M+m)gh ⇒ V = √2gh
⇒ v = (M+m)/m)√2gh
= (6/0.01)√ (2*9.8*0.098) = 600 * 1.386 = 831.4 m/s
New answer posted
7 months agoContributor-Level 10
As we know that Reynolds's number R = ρvD/η
In First case: v? = (0.18*10? ³)/ (π (0.5*10? ²)²*60) = 0.03822 m/s
R = (10³ * 0.03822 * 0.01)/10? ³ = 382.2 < 2000 (Laminar/Steady)
In Second case: v? = (0.48*10? ³)/ (π (0.5*10? ²)²*60) = 0.10191 m/s
R? = (10³ * 0.10191 * 0.01)/10? ³ = 1019.1 < 2000 (Laminar/Steady)
The provided solution has a different calculation for R, leading to a different conclusion.
New answer posted
7 months agoContributor-Level 10
Since speed of light is constant for all colour so red colour and blue colour have different frequencies and different wavelengths.
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