Class 12th

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New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 2 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

(2 – i) z = (2 + i) z ¯  , put z = x + iy

y = x 2 . . . . . . . . ( i )

(ii) ( 2 + i ) z + ( i 2 ) z ¯ 4 i = 0

x + 2y = 2

(iii) i z + z ¯ + 1 + i = 0

Equation of tangent x – y + 1 = 0

Solving (i) and (ii)

x = 1 . y = 1 2 c e n t r e ( 1 , 1 2 )

Perpendicular distance of point ( 1 , 1 2 )  from x – y + 1 = 0 is p = r | 1 1 2 + 1 2 | = r

r = 3 2 2

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 3 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

Kindly go throiugh the solution 

  λ = c v = Q 3 W 2 = I 3 T 3 M 2 L 4 T 4 [ λ ] = [ M 2 L 4 T 7 l 3 ]

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 4 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

Let

A : Missile hit the target

B : Missile intercepted

P (B) = 1 3 P ( A / B ¯ ) = 3 4

P ( B ¯ ) = 2 3

P ( B ¯ A ) = 3 4 * 2 3 = 1 2

Required Probability = 2 3 * 3 4 * 2 3 * 3 4 * 2 3 * 3 4 = 1 8

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 3 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

a + 2 0 2 = 3 + 7 r

a + 20 = 6 + 14r . (i)

b = 2 + 10r. (ii)

a = 18r – 2 . (iii)

Solving (i) and (iii) we get

20 + 18r – 2 = 6 + 14r

r = 3

 a = 14 + 14 (-3) = -56 and b = -2 30 = 32

| a + b | | 5 6 3 2 | = 8 8

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 2 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

x – 2y = 1, x – y + kz = -2, ky + 4z = 6

x – 2y + 0. z – 1 = 0

x – y + kz + 2 = 0

0x + ky + 4z – 6 = 0

0x + ky + 4z – 6 = 0

Δ 1 = | 1 2 0 2 1 k 6 k 4 | = ( k + 1 0 ) ( k + 2 )

For no solution

Δ = 0 , Δ 1 0

k = 2

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 1 View

A
Aadit Singh Uppal

Contributor-Level 10

The aim of using displacement current was to allow currrent ot flow inspite of a change in the field. This was not possible in the case of actual current since it lead to some complex situations, due to which scientists had to find a new solution for generating an electric field in such cases.

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 2 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

l = 1 3 [ x 2 2 x + 1 3 ] d x = 1 3 [ ( x 1 ) 2 3 ] d x = 1 3 [ ( x 1 ) 2 ] d x 3 1 3 d x .(A)

l 1 = 1 3 [ ( x 1 ) 2 ] d x P u t ( x 1 ) 2 = t

l 1 = 1 2 [ 0 0 1 d t t 1 2 d t t + 2 2 3 d t t + 3 3 4 d t t ] = 1 2 { | t 1 2 + 1 1 2 + 1 | 1 2 | + 2 t 1 2 + 1 1 2 + 1 | 2 3 + 3 t 1 2 + 1 1 2 + 1 ] 3 4 }

Hence from (A)

= 5 2 3 3 6 = 1 2 3

2nd method           


1 3 [ ( x 1 ) 2 ] d x 6 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ( A )

From (A), l = 5 2 3 6 = 1 2 3

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 1 View

A
Aadit Singh Uppal

Contributor-Level 10

Maxwell simply wanted to generate a magnetic field using electric current, which displacement current had the capability to offer. Since both current flows were able to produce an electric field, both of them could be simultaneously used for using in the equation.

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 2 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

    l = 0 2 f ( x ) d x = [ x f ( x ) ] 0 2 0 2 x f ' ( x ) d x = 2 e 2 0 2 x f ' ( x ) d x    .(A)

Put l 1 = 0 2 x f ' ( x ) d x               .(i)

Using properties a b f ( x ) d x = a b f ( a + b x ) d x

l 1 = 0 2 ( 2 x ) f ' ( 2 x ) d x = 0 2 ( 2 x ) f ' ( x ) d x .(ii)

Adding (i) and (ii) we get

2 l 1 = 2 0 2 f ' ( x ) d x l 1 = [ f ( x ) ] 0 2

f(2) – f(0) = e2 – 1

From (A) l = 2e2 – e2 + 1 = e2 + 1

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 5 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

r ^ i ^ = 2 c o s θ n ^ . . . . . . ( 1 )

r ^ = i ^ 2 ( i ^ . n ^ ) n ^

b = a 2 ( a . c ) c

 

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