Exam Pattern
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New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 7
The Andhra Pradesh PECET exam pattern consists of two parts: a Physical Efficiency Test (PET) and a Skill Test in a Game. The PET assesses physical abilities through various events, and the Skill Test evaluates skills in a chosen game.
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 7
The exam pattern of CBT 2 is as follows
Subject | No. of Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
General Awareness | 15 | 15 |
Physics & Chemistry | 15 | 15 |
Basics of Computers and Applications | 10 | 10 |
Basics of Environment and Pollution Control | 10 | 10 |
Technical Abilities | 100 | 100 |
Total | 150 | 150 |
Time | 120 Minutes | |
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 7
Candidates can check below the RRB JE 2025 CBT 1 exam pattern.
Subject | Number of Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
Mathematics | 30 | 30 |
General Intelligence & Reasoning | 25 | 25 |
General Awareness | 15 | 15 |
General Science | 30 | 30 |
Total | 100 | 100 |
Time | 90 Minutes | |
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 10
Kalinga Scholastic Entrance Examination (KALSEE) is conduted to provide admission to Kalinga University's offered programme. KALSEE exam pattern question papers for UG and PG courses contain total 90 objective-type multiple-choice questions (MCQs) that candidates need to attempt in 90 minutes. The exam is conducted in online mode as a computer-based test. Questions in the KALSEE exam are asked from four sections as explained the in the tables below:
Section and Subjects | Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
Section: A – English Communication | 25 | 25 |
Section: B – Logical Reasoning | 25 | 25 |
Section: C – Quantitative Aptitude | 20 | 20 |
Section: D – General Aptitude | 20 | 20 |
Total | 90 | 90 |
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 7
The exam conducting body NCERT prescribes the exam pattern syllabus of RIE CEE 2025. As per the exam pattern, the test will be conducted in offline mode OMR sheets. The total marks will be 160, and the time duration of the exam will be2 hours. There will be 80 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) divided into three sections:
- Teaching Aptitude (30 questions)
- Reasoning Ability (30 questions)
- Language Proficiency (20 questions)
For each correct answer attempted by candidate they will be awarded 2 marks, while 0.5 marks will be deducted as negative marking for every wrong answer.
New answer posted
a year agoBeginner-Level 4
The NRA CET exam pattern varies by educational level. For Class 10, it has 100 questions in 90 minutes. For Class 12, 200 questions in 2 hours. Graduate level has 100 questions in 60 minutes. It includes sections on reasoning, general knowledge, math, and English, with negative marking.
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 10
The structure of PET/PMT is given below.
PET Standards | Male | Female |
1600 meters run | Within 5 min 45 secs | - |
800 meters run | - | Within 3 min 40 secs |
Long jump | 14 feet | 9 feet |
High jump | 4 feet | 3 feet |
The height requirement for PET/PMT is given below.,
Category | Height (in CMs) | |
Male | Female | |
UR/OBC | 165 | 157 |
SC/ST | 160 | 152 |
Garhwalis, Gorkhas, Marathas, Dogras, Kumaonese, and other Categories specified by Govt. | 163 | 155 |
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 8
The structure of the RPF Constable exam pattern is given below.
Sections | Marks | Number of questions |
|---|---|---|
General Awareness | 50 | 50 |
Arithmetics | 35 | 35 |
General Intelligence & reasoning | 35 | 35 |
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 6
The SSC CGL Exam Pattern 2026 was released along with the notification. The Commission mentioned the SSC CGL exam pattern 2026 in the official notification. The authority released the notification on May 21, 2026.
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