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New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 3 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

The binary operation *′ on the set {1, 2, 3 4, 5} is defined as a *′ b = H.C.F of a and b.

The operation table for the operation *′ can be given as:

*′ 

1

2

3

4

5

1

1

1

1

1

1

2

1

2

1

2

1

3

1

1

3

1

1

4

1

2

1

4

1

5

1

1

1

1

5

We observe that the operation tables for the operations * and *′ are the same.

Thus, the operation *′ is same as the operation*.

New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 3 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

(i) (2 * 3) * 4 = 1 * 4 = 1

2 * (3 * 4) = 2 * 1 = 1

(ii) For every a, b ∈ {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}, we have a * b = b * a. Therefore, the operation * is commutative.

(iii) (2 * 3) = 1 and (4 * 5) = 1

∴ (2 * 3) * (4 * 5) = 1 * 1 = 1

New question posted

a year ago

0 Follower 2 Views

New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 3 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

The binary operation? on the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} is defined as a? b = min {a, b} &mn For E; a, b? {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}.

Thus, the operation table for the given operation? can be given as:

?

1

2

3

4

5

1

1

1

1

1

1

2

1

2

2

2

2

3

1

2

3

3

3

4

1

2

3

4

4

5

1

2

3

4

5

New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 5 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

 (i) On Z, * is defined by a * b = a − b.

It can be observed that 1 * 2 = 1 − 2 = 1 and 2 * 1 = 2 − 1 = 1.

∴1 * 2 ≠ 2 * 1; where 1, 2 ∈ Z

Hence, the operation * is not commutative.

Also we have:

(1 * 2) * 3 = (1 − 2) * 3 = −1 * 3 = −1 − 3 = −4

1 * (2 * 3) = 1 * (2 − 3) = 1 * −1 = 1 − (−1) = 2

∴(1 * 2) * 3 ≠ 1 * (2 * 3) ; where 1, 2, 3 ∈ Z

Hence, the operation * is not associative.

(ii) On Q, * is defined by a * b = ab + 1.

It is known that:

ab = ba & mn For E; a, b ∈ Q

⇒ ab + 1 = ba&nb

...more

New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 3 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

(i) On Z+, * is defined by a * b = a − b.

It is not a binary operation as the image of (1, 2) under * is 1 * 2 = 1 − 2= −1 ∉ Z+.

(ii) On Z+, * is defined by a * b = ab.

It is seen that for each a, b ∈ Z+, there is a unique element ab in Z+.

This means that * carries each pair (a, b) to a unique element a * b = ab in Z+.

Therefore, * is a binary operation.

(iii) On R, * is defined by a * b = ab2.

It is seen that for each a, b ∈ R, there is a unique element ab2 in R. 

This means that * carries each pair (a, b) to a unique element a * b = ab2 in R.

Therefore, * is a binary operation.

(iv) On Z+, * is defined by a * b = |a −

...more

New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 25 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

55. We have (k - 3) x - (4 - k2) y + k2 - 7 y + 6 = 0.

(i) When the line is parall to x-axis, all x coefficient = 0. then,

(k - 3)x - (4 -k2)y + k2 - 7y + 6 = 0 x.x - a x y       where a = constant

Equating the co-efficient,

K – 3 = 0

=> k = 3

(ii) When the line is parallel to y-axis all y co-efficient = 0 then

- (4 -k)2 = 0

=> – 4 + x2 = 0

k2 = 4

k = ± 2.

(iii) When the line pares through origin, (0, 0) need satisfy the given eqn then,

k2 - 7k + 6 = 0

k2 - k – 6k + 6 = 0

k (k- 1) - 6 (k - 1) = 0

(k = 1) (k - 6) = 0

k = 1 and k = 6

New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 4 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

It is given that f:R{43}R is defined as f(x)=4x3x4

Let y be an arbitrary element of Range f.

Then, there exists xR{43} such that y=f(x)

y=4x3x+4

3xy+4y=4x let us define g: Range fR{43}as,g(y)=4y43y

x(43y)=4yNow,(gof)(x)=g(f(x))=g(4x3x+4)x=4y43y=4(4x3x+4)43(4x3x+4)=16x12x+1612x=16x16=xAnd,(fog)(y)=f(g(y))=f(4y43y)=4(4y43y)3(4y43y)+4=16y12y+1612y=16y16=ygof=IR(43)and,fog=I_"Range,f"

Thus, g is the inverse of f i.e., f1=g.

Hence, the inverse of f is the map g: Range fR{43} which is given by

g(y)=4y43y

The correct answer is B.

New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 5 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

f:RR is given as f (x)= (3x3) (1/3)

f (x)= (3x3)13fof (x)=f (f (x))=f ( (3x3)13)= [3 ( (3x3)13)3]13= [3 (3x3)]13= (x3)13=xfof (x)=x

The correct answer is C.

New answer posted

a year ago

0 Follower 10 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

Let f: X → Y be an invertible function. 

Then, there exists a function g: Y → X such that gof = IX and fog = IY. 

Here, f−1 = g. 

Now, gof = IX and fog = IY

⇒ f−1 of = IX and fof−1 = IY

Hence, f−1 : Y → X is invertible and f is the inverse of f−1 

i.e., (f−1)−1  = f.

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