Maths
Get insights from 6.5k questions on Maths, answered by students, alumni, and experts. You may also ask and answer any question you like about Maths
Follow Ask QuestionQuestions
Discussions
Active Users
Followers
New answer posted
11 months agoContributor-Level 10
(i) On Z+, * is defined by a * b = a − b.
It is not a binary operation as the image of (1, 2) under * is 1 * 2 = 1 − 2= −1 ∉ Z+.
(ii) On Z+, * is defined by a * b = ab.
It is seen that for each a, b ∈ Z+, there is a unique element ab in Z+.
This means that * carries each pair (a, b) to a unique element a * b = ab in Z+.
Therefore, * is a binary operation.
(iii) On R, * is defined by a * b = ab2.
It is seen that for each a, b ∈ R, there is a unique element ab2 in R.
This means that * carries each pair (a, b) to a unique element a * b = ab2 in R.
Therefore, * is a binary operation.
(iv) On Z+, * is defined by a * b = |a −
New answer posted
11 months agoContributor-Level 10
55. We have (k - 3) x - (4 - k2) y + k2 - 7 y + 6 = 0.
(i) When the line is parall to x-axis, all x coefficient = 0. then,
(k - 3)x - (4 -k2)y + k2 - 7y + 6 = 0 x.x - a x y where a = constant
Equating the co-efficient,
K – 3 = 0
=> k = 3
(ii) When the line is parallel to y-axis all y co-efficient = 0 then
- (4 -k)2 = 0
=> – 4 + x2 = 0
k2 = 4
k = ± 2.
(iii) When the line pares through origin, (0, 0) need satisfy the given eqn then,
k2 - 7k + 6 = 0
k2 - k – 6k + 6 = 0
k (k- 1) - 6 (k - 1) = 0
(k = 1) (k - 6) = 0
k = 1 and k = 6
New answer posted
11 months agoContributor-Level 10
It is given that is defined as
Let y be an arbitrary element of Range f.
Then, there exists such that
let us define g: Range
Thus, g is the inverse of f i.e.,
Hence, the inverse of f is the map g: Range which is given by
The correct answer is B.
New answer posted
11 months agoContributor-Level 10
Let f: X → Y be an invertible function.
Then, there exists a function g: Y → X such that gof = IX and fog = IY.
Here, f−1 = g.
Now, gof = IX and fog = IY
⇒ f−1 of = IX and fof−1 = IY
Hence, f−1 : Y → X is invertible and f is the inverse of f−1
i.e., (f−1)−1 = f.
New answer posted
11 months agoContributor-Level 10
If we define then we have:
Thus, the inverse of f exists and
is given by,
Let us now find the inverse of i.e., find the inverse of g.
If we define
, then we have
Thus, the inverse of g exists and
It can be noted that h=f.
Hence,
New answer posted
11 months agoContributor-Level 10
54. The equation of line whose intercept on axes are a and b is given by,
Multiplying both sides by ab we get,

New answer posted
11 months agoContributor-Level 10
Let be an invertible function.
Also, suppose f has two inverses (say g1 and g2 ).
Then, for all y ∈ Y, we have:
[f is invertible => f is one-one]
[g is one-one]
Hence, f has a unique inverse.
New answer posted
11 months agoContributor-Level 10
53. Let P be the point on the BC dropped from vertex A.

Slope of BC
= 1.
As A P BC,
Slope of AP=
Using slope-point form the equation of AP is,
x 2 = y 3
x – y – 2 + 3 = 0 x – y + 1 = 0
The equation of line segment through B(4, -1) and C(1, 2) is.
So, A=1, B=1 and C= 3.
Hence, length of AP=length of distance of A(2,3) from BC.

Taking an Exam? Selecting a College?
Get authentic answers from experts, students and alumni that you won't find anywhere else
Sign Up on ShikshaOn Shiksha, get access to
- 66k Colleges
- 1.2k Exams
- 688k Reviews
- 1850k Answers


