Ncert Solutions Maths class 12th

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New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 15 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

It is given that,

f:RR is defined as f(x)={1x>00x=01x<0

Also, g:RR is defined as g(x)=[x] , where [x] is the greatest integer less than or equal to x.

Now, let x(0,1)

Then, we have:

[x]=1 if x=1 and [x]=0 if 0<x<1

fog(x)=f(g(x))=f([x])={f(1)if,x=1f(0)if,x(0,1)={(1,"if,x=1"),(0,:if,x(0,1)"):}gof(x)=g(f(x))=g(1)[x>0]=[1]=1

Thus, when x(0,1) , we have fog(x)=0and,gof(x)=1.

Hence, fog and gof do not coincide in (0, 1).

Therefore, option (B) is correct.

New answer posted

10 months ago

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V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

2, Therefore, option (B) is correct.

New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 19 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

It is clear that 1 is reflexive and symmetric but not transitive.

Therefore, option (A) is correct.

New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 7 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

It is given that A = {–1, 0, 1, 2}, B = {–4, –2, 0, 2}

Also, it is given that f,g:AB are defined by f(x)=x2x,xA and g(x)=2x121,xA .

It is observed that:

f(1)=(12)(1)=1+1=2g(1)=2(1)121=2(32)1=31=2f(1)=g(1)f(0)=(0)20=0g(0)=2(0)121=2(12)1=11=0f(0)=g(0)f(1)=(1)21=11=0g(1)=2a121=2(12)1=11=0f(1)=g(1)f(2)=(2)22=42=2g(2)=2(2)121=2(32)1=31=2f(2)=g(2)f(a)=g(a)aA

Hence, the functions f and g are equal.

New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 7 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

Let X={0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}.

The operation* on X is defined as:

a*b={a+bif,a+b<6a+b6if,a+b6

An element eX is the identity element for the operation*, if a*e=a=e*aaX

For aX we observed that

a*0=a+0=a[aXa+0<6]0*a=0+a=a[aX0+a<6]a*0=0*aaX

Thus, 0 is the identity element for the given operation*.

An element aX is invertible if there exists bX such that a*0=0*a.

ie{a+b=0=b+aif,a+b<6a+66=0=b+a6if,a+b6

i.e.,

a=b,or,b=6a

But, X={0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and a,bX . Then, ab .

b=6a is the inverse of a&mnForE;aX.

Hence, the inverse of an element aX,a0 is 6-a i.e., a1=6a.

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New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 3 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

It is given that ∗: P (X) * P (X) → P (X) be defined as

 A * B = (A – B) ∪ (B – A), A, B ∈ P (X).

Now, let A? P (X). Then, we get,

A *? = (A –? ) ∪ (? –A) = A∪? = A

? * A = (? - A) ∪ (A -? ) =? ∪A = A

A *? = A =? * A,     A? P (X)

Therefore? is the identity element for the given operation *.

Now, an element A? P (X) will be invertible if there exists B? P (X) such that

A * B =? = B * A. (as? is an identity element.)

Now, we can see that A * A = (A –A) ∪ (A – A) =? ∪? =? A? P (X).

Therefore, all the element A of P (X) are invertible with A-1 = A. 

New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

It is given that*: R*R and o:R*RR is defined as

a*b=|ab|and,aob=a,&mnForE;a,bR.

For a,bR , we have:

a*b=|ab|b*a=|ba|=|(ab)|=|ab|a*b=b*a

 The operation* is commutative.

It can be observed that,

(1.2).3=(|12|).3=1.3=|13|=21*(2*3)=1*(|23|)=1*1=|11|=0(1*2)*3=1*(2*3)(where,1,2,3R)

 The operation* is not associative.

Now, consider the operation o:

It can be observed that 1o2=1,and,2o1=2.

1o22o1(where,1,2R)

 The operation o is not commutative.

Let, a,b,cR . Then we have:

(aοb)οc=aoc=aao(bοc)=aob=a(aοb)οc=ao(bοc)

 The operation o is associative.

Now, a,b,cR . Then we have:

a*(bοc)=a*b=|ab|(a*b)o(a*c)=(|ab|)o(|ac|)=|ab|Hence,a*(bοc)=(a*b)o(a*c).Now,1o(2ο3)=1o(|23|)=1o1=1(1o2)*(1o3)=1*1=|11|=01o(2ο3)(1o2)*(1o3)(where,1,2,3R)

 The operation o does not distribute over*.

New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 5 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

S = {a, b, c}, T = {1, 2, 3}

(i) F: S → T is defined as:

F = { (a, 3), (b, 2), (c, 1)}

⇒ F (a) = 3, F (b) = 2, F (c) = 1 

Therefore, F−1 : T → S is given by

F−1  = { (3, a), (2, b), (1, c)}.

(ii) F: S → T is defined as:

F = { (a, 2), (b, 1), (c, 1)}

Since F (b) = F (c) = 1, F is not one-one.

Hence, F is not invertible i.e., F−1  does not exist.

New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 59 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

Onto functions from the set {1, 2, 3, …, n} to itself is simply a permutation on n symbols 1, 2, …, n.

Thus, the total number of onto maps from {1, 2, …, n} to itself is the same as the total number of permutations on n symbols 1, 2, …, n, which is n!

New answer posted

10 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

Let S be a non-empty set and P (S) be its power set. Let any two subsets A and B of S.

It is given that: P (X)xP (X)P (X) is defined as A.B=ABA, BP (X)

We know that AX=A=XAAP (X)

A.X=A=X.AAP (X)

Thus, X is the identity element for the given binary operation*.

Now, an element is  AP (X) invertible if there exists BP (X) such that

A*B=X=B*A  (As X is the identity element)

i.e.

AB=X=BA

This case is possible only when A=X=B.

Thus, X is the only invertible element in P (X) with respect to the given operation*.

Hence, the given result is proved.

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