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New answer posted

11 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

The EM waves originate from an accelerating charge. The charge moving with uniform velocity produces steady state magnetic field.

New answer posted

11 months ago

0 Follower 3 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

Apply energy conservation,

U i + K i = U f + K f

G M m R + K i = G M m 3 R + 1 2 m v 2

G M m R + K i = G M m 3 R + 1 2 * m * G M 3 R

K i = 1 6 G M m R + G M m R

K i = 5 6 G M m R

New answer posted

11 months ago

0 Follower 4 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

At same temperature, curve with higher volume corresponds to lower pressure.

V 3 > V 2 > V 1

P 1 > P 2 > P 3

(We draw a straight line parallel to volume axis to get this)

New answer posted

11 months ago

0 Follower 12 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

T = 2 π ? g where t = l 2

T = 2 π t g

T = x 2 T

2 π t 2 g = x 2 2 π t g

1 2 = x 2 x = 2

New answer posted

11 months ago

0 Follower 6 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

Capacitive Reactance X C = 1 ω C = 1 2 π f C = 1 2 * 3 . 1 4 * 5 0 * 1 0 * 1 0 6

= 1 0 0 0 3 . 1 4

Vrms=210 V

i rms = V rms X C = 2 1 0 X C

 Peak current =2ims=2*2101000*3.14=0.932

?0.93 A

New answer posted

11 months ago

0 Follower 3 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

According to modified Ampere's law

? B . d I = μ 0 ( I C + I D )

For Loop  L 1 I C 0 and I D = 0

For Loop  L 2 I C = 0 and I D 0

Due to  KCLIC=ID

New answer posted

11 months ago

0 Follower 7 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

T = m ? ^ ω 2

T = m : ( 2 ω ) 2

T = 4 T

New answer posted

11 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

(Material)                      (Susceptibility ( χ  )

Diamagnetic                 (II) 0 > χ 1

Ferromagnetic  (III) χ ? 1

Paramagnetic                (IV) 0 < χ < ε

Non-magnetic               (I) χ = 0

New answer posted

11 months ago

0 Follower 11 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

The magnitude of magnetic field due to circular coil of N  turns is given by

B C = μ 0 i N 2 R

= 4 π * 1 0 7 * 7 * 1 0 0 2 * 0 . 1

=4.4*103 T

=4.4mT

New answer posted

11 months ago

0 Follower 6 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

Divided into 10 parts

R = ρ l A

R = ρ l 1 0 A = R 1 0

RS=5*R10 [series] 

R S = 5 0

R P = R 5 0 [  parallel  ]

R eq  = R S + R P

= 5 2 Ω

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