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New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 6 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

Amp. a slit with

Intensity a (Amp)2 a (slit width)2

  l1l2= (31)2=91l1=9I2

lminlmax= (l1l2)2 (l1+l2)2= (31)2 (3+1)2            

  14=x4

x = 1.00

 

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
Aadit Singh Uppal

Contributor-Level 10

Formula for Power = F·v cos θ

According to the question, force is perpendicular.

So θ = 90

and cos 90 = 0

Hence, the result turns out to be 0 i.e. no power generated inspite of force being applied.

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 1 View

A
Aadit Singh Uppal

Contributor-Level 10

In simple words,

Energy = total work done on an object.

Power = how fast the work is done on an object.

For example: Writing an article vs how fast you write the article. This sums up the exact meaning of both these terms.

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 1 View

A
Aadit Singh Uppal

Contributor-Level 10

No. Even if the power is higher, the energy can be inefficient. This happens when much of the energy generated gets wasted or isn't utilized as effectively as it should have been. In such cases, high power can still lead to inefficiency of energy.

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 16 Views

V
Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

Answer (1)

e E = e d V d r = m ω 2 r

? V = d V = R 2 R m e ω 2 r d r

= ? V = 3 m ω 2 R 2 2 e

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 3 Views

P
Payal Gupta

Contributor-Level 10

l=120604000=0.015A

Thus l2 = l - LL

= 0.015 – 0.006

= 0.009 = 9mA

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 4 Views

P
Payal Gupta

Contributor-Level 10

For first line of Lyman

1λ=R (114)=R34

λ=43R

3rd line (Paschen)

1λ3=R (132162)=R9*34

2nd line (B almer)

1λ2=R (122142)=R4*34

a (43R)=203Ra=5

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 15 Views

P
Payal Gupta

Contributor-Level 10

for point B,  1u=0.10cm1, 1v=0

Thus u = 10 cm, v = 

i.e., f = 10 cm

110= (1.51) (2R)1R=110

R = 10 cm

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 23 Views

P
Payal Gupta

Contributor-Level 10

At very high frequencies

XC=1ωC0

XL=ωL

Thus equivalent circuit

Z=1+2+2=5Ω

l=2205=44A

New answer posted

8 months ago

0 Follower 2 Views

P
Payal Gupta

Contributor-Level 10

Initially,  PQ=4060=23 - (1)

Finally,  P+xQ=8020=41

(2) (1)

P+xP=4*32=6

1+xP=6

xP=5

x = 5 P = 5 * 4 = 20 Ω

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