Class 12th

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A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

  l i m x a x f ( a ) a f ( x ) x a ( 0 0 )

By L'hospital Rule

= l i m x a f ( a ) a f ' ( x ) 1 = f ( a ) a f ' ( a )         

= 4 2 a           

Now equation of line OA be

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Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

Zener break down occurs in p-n junction having p and n both : Heavily doped and have narrow depletion layer.

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A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

g ( 2 ) = l i m x 2 g ( x ) = l i m x 2 x 2 x 2 2 x 2 x 6 = l i m x 2 ( x 2 ) ( x + 1 ) 2 x ( x 2 ) + 3 ( x 2 )           

N o w f o g = f ( g ( x ) ) = s i n 1 g ( x ) = s i n 1 ( x 2 x 2 2 x 2 x 6 )

3 x 2 2 x 8 2 x 2 x 6 0 & x 2 + 4 2 x 2 x 6 0          

On solving we get   x ( , 2 ) [ 4 3 , )

As x = 2 also lies in domain since g(2) = l i m x 2 g ( x )  

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Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

R = 2 Ω

L = 2 mH

E = 9V

i = ε 2 R = 9 v 4 Ω = 2 . 2 5 A

Just after the switch 'S' is closed, the inductor acts as open circuit.

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A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

a 1 = x i ^ j ^ + k ^ & a 2 = i ^ + y j ^ + z k ^           

given  a 1 & a 2 are collinear then a 1 = λ a 2  

( x i ^ j ^ + k ^ ) = λ ( i ^ + y j ^ + z k ^ )         

Since i ^ , j ^ & k ^ are not collinear so

  S o x i ^ + y j ^ + z k ^ = λ i ^ 1 λ j ^ + 1 λ k ^         

Hence possible unit vector parallel to it be  1 3 ( i ^ j ^ + k ^ ) for λ =

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A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

Given f(x) = e x e t f ( t ) d t + e x . . . . . . . . . . ( i )  

using Leibniz rule then

f'(x) = exf(x) + ex

  d y d x = e x y + e x w h e r e y = f ( x ) t h e n d y d x = f ' ( x )                

P = -ex, Q = ex

Solution be y. (I.F.) =   Q ( I . F . ) d x + c

I. f. =   e e x d x = e e x

y . ( e e x ) = e x . e e x d x + c          

  y . e e x = d t + c = t + c = e e x + c . . . . . . . . . . ( i i )          

Put x = 0 , in (i) f (0) = 1

F r o m ( i i ) , 1 e = 1 e + c g i v e n c = 2 e        

Hence f(x) = 2. e ( e x 1 ) 1  

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Vishal Baghel

Contributor-Level 10

d q d t = t = 2 0 t + 8 t 2

0 q d q = 0 1 5 ( 2 0 t + 8 t 2 ) d t

q = 2 0 * 1 5 2 2 + 8 . 1 5 3 3 = 1 1 2 5 0 C

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R
Raj Pandey

Contributor-Level 9

d y d x = 1 1 + s i n 2 x

d y = s e c 2 x d x ( 1 + t a n x ) 2

y = 1 1 + t a n x + c

when   x = π 4 , y = 1 2 gives c = 1

so x + π 4 = 5 π 6 o r 1 3 π 6 x = 7 π 1 2 o r 2 3 π 1 2

sum of all solutions =

π + 7 π 1 2 + 2 3 π 1 2 = 4 2 π 1 2

Hence k = 42

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