Quantitative Aptitude Prep Tips for MBA
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New answer posted
a month agoContributor-Level 9
Let the total work be 240 units.
Total Work = 240 Units
Pipe 1: 40 hours = 6 units/h
Pipe 1 + Leak: 48 hours = 5 units/h
Leak can empty 1 unit in 1 hour.
Pipe 2 can fill 3 units per hour (half as efficient as the first one)
Therefore, effective filling is 2 units per hour.
Therefore, 120 units (half the tank) will get filled in 60 hours.
New answer posted
a month agoContributor-Level 9
Time taken by two trains will be 9 hours and 6 hours respectively. So, Let the total distance be LCM of (9 and 6) = 18.
Speed of trains will be 2 km/hr & 3 km/hr.
At 9 am distance between two trains is 14 km
Time taken = = 2 hours 48 minutes
So, trains will meet at 11:48 am.
New answer posted
a month agoContributor-Level 9
If Z earns Rs 100a, X earns 120a & Y earns 160a
160a – 100a = 60a = 7980
a = 133
X= 120 * 133 = 15960
Y = 160 * 133 = 21280
Z = 100 * 133 = 13300
New answer posted
a month agoContributor-Level 9
L.C.M. of 5, 6, 7, 8
= 35 * 24 = 840
Therefore, the required number = 840x + 3,
Which is exactly divisible by 11.
For x = 2, it is divisible by 11.
Hence,
Required number = 840x + 3
= 840 * 2 + 3
= 1683
New answer posted
a month agoContributor-Level 9
32% of CP = Rs. 8320 or CP = Rs. 26000
Now the Aman wants a profit of 62%.
Therefore, he has to sell it at a price of 26000 * 1.62 = 42120
New answer posted
a month agoContributor-Level 10
The solid sphere is melted and recast into cones. The volume of material is the same before and after casting.
Volume of the sphere = . (1)
Volume of the right circular cone = . (2)
Diameter of the base of the cone
= slant height
= S (say). (3)
4R = 2S = 2 (H2 + R2)
2R2 = 2H
R = H. (4)
Volume of the cone =
(since, R = r)
From equations (1) and (4), it can be seen that the melted material creates exactly 4 cones of the specified dimensions. No material is left over.
New answer posted
a month agoContributor-Level 10
(6x2 + 43x – 49) – (5x2 + 2x – 7) = 0
x2 + 41x – 42 = 0
x2 + 42x – x – 42 = 0
x (x + 42) – 1 (x + 42) = 0
(x – 1) (x + 42) = 0
x = 1 satisfy both the equations. So, there is only one common root.
New answer posted
a month agoIf the number 79P856776Q is divisible by 4, 9 and 5 then, what are the respective values of P and Q?
Contributor-Level 10
Q can be 0 or 5, but 65 is not divisible by 4.
So, Q must be 0.
Now, sum of the digit should be divisible by 9.
So, P is 8.
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