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New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 10
Mean = (6+10+7+13+a+12+b+12)/8 = (60+a+b)/8 = 9 ⇒ a+b=12.
Variance = (Σx? ²/n) - (mean)² = 37/4.
Σx? ²/8 - 81 = 37/4.
Σx? ² = 8 (81+9.25) = 8 (90.25) = 722.
Σx? ² = 36+100+49+169+a²+144+b²+144 = 642+a²+b².
642+a²+b²=722 ⇒ a²+b²=80.
(a+b)²=144 ⇒ a²+b²+2ab=144 ⇒ 80+2ab=144 ⇒ 2ab=64.
(a-b)² = a²+b²-2ab = 80-64 = 16.
New question posted
a year agoNew answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 10
Given
&
(i) & (ii)
Now variance = 1 given
=> (α - β) (α - β + 4) = 0
Since
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 10
Class | Frequency | xi | xifi |
|
0 - 6 6 – 12 12 – 18 18 – 24 24 – 30 | a b 12 9 5 a + b + 26 = N | 3 9 15 21 27 | 3a 9b 180 189 135 | -> 81a + 37b = 1018 -(i) |
->a + b = 18 -(ii)
Solving (i) & (ii) a = 8 & b = 10
->(a – b)2 = 4
New answer posted
a year agoContributor-Level 10
For every a, there must be a2 – 2. So, there will be infinitely many pairs (a, b)
New answer posted
a year agoTaking an Exam? Selecting a College?
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