Work, Energy and Power

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New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 4 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

At central point on screen, path difference is zero for all wavelength. So, central bright fringe is white and other fringes depend on wavelength as β = λ D d .

Therefore, other fringes will be coloured.

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 4 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

By work energy theorem

Work done = change in K.E.

Work done by friction work done by spring

= 0 1 2 m V 2              

As 90% of K.E. is losed by friction so that

9 0 1 0 0 ( 1 2 m V 2 ) 1 2 K x 2 = 1 2 m V 2                

-K -> -16 * 105

K = 16 * 105

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 2 Views

A
Aadit Singh Uppal

Contributor-Level 10

Formula for Power = F·v cos θ

According to the question, force is perpendicular.

So θ = 90

and cos 90 = 0

Hence, the result turns out to be 0 i.e. no power generated inspite of force being applied.

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 1 View

A
Aadit Singh Uppal

Contributor-Level 10

In simple words,

Energy = total work done on an object.

Power = how fast the work is done on an object.

For example: Writing an article vs how fast you write the article. This sums up the exact meaning of both these terms.

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 1 View

A
Aadit Singh Uppal

Contributor-Level 10

No. Even if the power is higher, the energy can be inefficient. This happens when much of the energy generated gets wasted or isn't utilized as effectively as it should have been. In such cases, high power can still lead to inefficiency of energy.

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 10 Views

P
Payal Gupta

Contributor-Level 10

Let m = 250 g = 0.25 kg

By Reduced mass method

mr=m1m2m1+m2=mmm+m=m2

By wet

wSP=ΔK.E.

12kx2=012 (m2) (2v)2

22x2=0.25v2

x2=0.25v2

x=v2

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 3 Views

A
alok kumar singh

Contributor-Level 10

x = 2 t 1

v=dxdt=2 m s1

P = F · v

=2*5=10 W

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 1 View

A
Aadit Singh Uppal

Contributor-Level 10

No. Since kinetic energy is a scalar quantity, it only depends on speed of the body and not the direction. So if the direction of the body is changed but the speed remains unchanged, there won't be any effect on the kinetic energy. However, if changing the direction also changes the speed of the body, then kinetic energy of the body will also change.

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 1 View

A
Aadit Singh Uppal

Contributor-Level 10

If you look closely at the formula of kinetic energy (1/2*m*v^2), the velocity is squared which automatically gives a positive integer. And mass of the body can never be a negative value, which leads to the result being a positive integer.

New answer posted

a month ago

0 Follower 1 View

A
Aadit Singh Uppal

Contributor-Level 10

The 1/2 is a result of mathematical calculation, which occurs when we integrate? vdv in the formula of work done according to Newton's second law of motion. Without this, the final result will turn out to be twice of the actual value.

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