Moving Charges and Magnetism
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New answer posted
4 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a Long Answer Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar
Explanation- the thicker wire has a resistance R, then the other wire has a resistance @R as the wires are of the same material but different area


New answer posted
4 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a Long Answer Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar
Explanation – for equilibrium balance net torque should be zero
Mgl= Wcoill
500gl = Wcoill
Wcoil= 500 9.8N
Taking moment of force about mid point then magnetic field
Mgl+mgl=Wcoill+IBlsin90
Mgl=BILl
M= -3kg= 1g
New question posted
4 months agoNew answer posted
4 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a Multiple Choice Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar
Explanation- |A+B|=|A-B|
=
4|A|B|cos =0
|A|2+|B|2cos =0
A=0 or B=0 so . so A perpendicular B
New answer posted
4 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a Multiple Choice Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar
Answer- a, b, c
Explanation- (i) Speed will constant throughout
(ii) Velocity will be tangential in the direction of motion
(iii) Centripetal acceleration will be a= v2/r, will always be towards centre of the circular path.
(iv) Angular momentum is constant in magnitude and direction out of the plane perpendicularly as well.

New answer posted
4 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a Multiple Choice Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar
Answer- a, c
Explanation – as we know average acceleration is aav=
But when acceleration is not uniform Vav is not equal to v1+v2/2
So we can write
= v2-v1 (t2-t1)
New answer posted
4 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a Multiple Choice Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar
Answer- c
Explanation– as the given track y=x2 is a frictionless track thus total energy will be same throughout the journey.
Hence total energy at A = total energy at P . at B the particle is having only Ke but at P some KE is converted to P
Hence (KE)B = (KE)P
Total energy at A = PE= total energy at B = KE= total energy at P
= PE+KE
Potential energy at A is converted to KE and PE at P hence
(PE)P< (PE)A
Hence (height)P= (height)A
As height of p < height of A
Hence path length AB > path length BP
New answer posted
4 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a Multiple Choice Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar
Answer- a,b,c
Explanation – H=
H1=Vo2sin2 1/2g , H2=Vo2sin2 2/2g
H1>H2
Vo2sin2 1/2g= Vo2sin2 2/2g
Sin2 1>sin2 2
Sin2 1 – sin2 2>0
(Sin 1 – sin 2)( Sin 1 + sin 2)>0
Sin 1>sin 2 or 1 >2
T=
T1= , T2=
T1> T2
R=
Sin 1>sin 2
Sin2 1> sin2 2
R1>R2
Total energy for the first particle
U1=K.E+P.E=1/2m1
U2= K.E+P.E= 1/2m2
Total energy for the second particle
So m1= m2 then U1=U2
So m1>m2 then U1>U2
So m1
New answer posted
4 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a Multiple Choice Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar
Answer- a, b
Explanation - |A+B|= |A|or |A+B|2=|A|2
|A|2 +|B|2+2|A|B|cos = |A|2
|B| (|B|+2|A|cos )= 0
|B|=0 or |B|+2|A|cos =0
Cos =
If A and B are antiparallel then =180
-1=
New answer posted
4 months agoContributor-Level 10
This is a Multiple Choice Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar
Answer- b, d
Explanation – given A+B+C = 0
B
B +B =0
B
B
A
(A )
It cannot be zero
(b) (A ).C= (B ).C=0 . if b|C then B =0 then (B )
(c) (A )=X=ABsin . The direction of X is perpendicular to the plane containing A and B (A )
(d) if c2= A2+B2, then angle between A and B is 900
(A ).C= (AB sin900X).C=AB (X.C)
= ABC cos900= 0
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