NEET 2022 Daily Practice Questions Live Updates

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Sreetama Datta
Sreetama Datta Roy
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Updated on May 19, 2022 11:56 IST

NEET 2022 will be conducted on July 17. Shiksha.com brings to you daily practice questions on Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology.

NEET 2022 Preparation with Practice Questions and Answers

NEET 2022 Preparation with Practice Questions and Answers

NEET or the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test is the biggest and sole entrance exam for undergraduate medical courses. Given its volume and level of competition, it is needless to say that it is one of the toughest exams to crack. By now, aspirants must have started to prepare for the exams. Along with studying from the books, regular practice and solving questions are of utmost importance. To help students with the preparation, here we will bring to you the NEET prep question bank, which are daily practice questions along with answer keys.

Before starting with the NEET prep questions and answers, we bring to you the exam pattern and structure of NEET. Last year, the exam pattern underwent massive changes in terms of pattern and structure. It is expected that the same pattern and structure will be followed this year too. 

NEET Exam Pattern

The table below brings the exam pattern, which will help solve the NEET prep questions.

Sections

Number of Questions

Total Marks

Physics Section A

35

140

Physics Section B

15

40

Chemistry Section A

35

140

Chemistry Section B

15

40

Botany Section A

35

140

Botany Section B

15

40

Zoology Section A

35

140

Zoology Section B

15

40

NEET 2022 Marking Scheme

  • Each correct answer will be awarded four marks

  • One mark will be deducted for every incorrect answer

  • No mark will be deducted for the questions which have not been answered

  • Questions that have two or more responses marked on the OMR sheet will be considered incorrect and one mark will be deducted from them

Solve the NEET practice questions, which will be a collection of chapter-wise mock tests for NEET to get a hang of the question types and topics to expect in the actual test. The NEET practice test is a compilation of subject and chapter-wise questions from the previous years' NEET question paper. Get started with the NEET practice test by solving the NEET prep question bank below.

LATEST UPDATE
  • 11:56 AM IST19 May 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – May 19, 2022

    Q1: A step down transformer connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the current in the primary circuit?

    (1) 0.2 A

    (2) 0.4 A

    (3) 2 A

    (4) 4 A

     

    Q2:

    Q3: In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?

    (1) Poaceae ; Rosaceae

    (2) Poaceae ; Leguminosae

    (3) Poaceae ; Solanaceae

    (4) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae

     

    Q4: Assertion (A):

    A person goes to high altitude and experiences ‘altitude sickness’ with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.

    Reason (R):

    Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitudes, the body does not get sufficient oxygen.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

    (3) (A) is true but (R) is false

    (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

     

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    • Q1 (1)
    • Q2: (3)
    • Q3: (4)
    • Q4: (1)
  • 12:25 PM IST18 May 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – May 18, 2022

    Q1: A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is (g=10 m/s2) nearly:

    (1) 0 kg m/s

    (2) 4.2 kg m/s

    (3) 2.1 kg m/s

    (4) 1.4 kg m/s

     

    Q2: 

    Q3: Which of the following statements is incorrect?

    (1) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage.

    (2) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH+H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules

    (3) ATP is synthesized through complex V.

    (4) Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradient in respiration.

     

    Q4: The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into:

    (1) Dysfunction of Immune system

    (2) Parkinson’s disease

    (3) Digestive disorder

    (4) Addison’s disease

     

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    • Q1: (2)
    • Q2: (3)
    • Q3: (2)
    • Q4: (1)

     

  • 1:16 PM IST17 May 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – May 17, 2022

    Q1: A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and resistance ‘R’ is wound up as a current carrying coil in the shape of,

    (i) an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’.

    (ii) a square of side ‘a’.

    The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case respectively are:

    Q2: In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicated against it?

     

    Q3: Which of the following statements is correct?

    (1) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.

    (2) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.

    (3) Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes.

    (4) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.

     

    Q4: Match List - I with List - II.

     

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    • Q1: (1)
    • Q2: (2)
    • Q3: (2)
    • Q4: (4)
  • 10:51 AM IST12 May 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – May 12, 2022

    Q1: Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.

    (1) 660 V

    (2) 1320 V

    (3) 1520 V

    (4) 1980 V

     

    Q2: Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature?

    Q3: Match List - I with List-II.

     

    Q4: Statement I:

    The codon ‘AUG’ codes for methionine and phenylalanine.

    Statement II:

    ‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both codons code for the amino acid lysine. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

    (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

    (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

     

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    • Q1: (4)
    • Q2: (3)
    • Q3: (3)
    • Q4: (4)
  • 12:24 PM IST11 May 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – May 11, 2022

    Q1: 

     

    Q2:

     

    Q3:

     

    Q4: Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?

    (1) Cow is administered hormone having LH like activity for super ovulation

    (2) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time

    (3) Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination

    (4) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate mothers at 8-32 cell stage

     

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    • Q1: (4)
    • Q2: (3)
    • Q3: (1)
    • Q4: (1)

     

  • 10:12 AM IST10 May 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – May 10, 2022

    Q1: A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would be formed at a distance of:

    (1) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.

    (2) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.

    (3) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.

    (4) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.

     

    Q2: The reagent ‘R’ in the given sequence of chemical reaction is:

     

    Q3: What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?

    (1) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)

    (2) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA

    (3) Transcribes precursor of mRNA

    (4) Transcribes only snRNAs

     

    Q4:

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    • Q1: (4)
    • Q2: (2)
    • Q3: (2)
    • Q4: (2)

     

  • 10:13 AM IST9 May 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – May 9, 2022

    Q1: A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and another unknown mass ‘m’ is suspended from the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the value of ‘m’ such that the rod is in equilibrium. (g=10 m/s2)

     

    Q2: From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair?

    Q3: In the exponential growth equation

     

    (1) The base of number logarithms

    (2) The base of exponential logarithms

    (3) The base of natural logarithms

    (4) The base of geometric logarithms

     

    Q4:

     

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    • Q1: (4)
    • Q2: (4)
    • Q3: (3)
    • Q4: (3)
  • 4:16 PM IST7 May 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – May 7, 2022

    Q1: A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 µF capacitor and 40 ? resistor is connected to 230 V variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be:

    (1) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s

    (2) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s

    (3) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s

    (4) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s

     

    Q2: Match List - I with List - II.

     

    Q3: Select the correct pair.

    (1) Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells cells in the epidermis of grass leaves

    (2) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive bundles are surrounded tissue by large thick-walled cells

    (3) Cells of medullary rays - Interfascicular that form part of cambium cambial ring

    (4) Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy rupturing the epidermis parenchyma and forming a lensshaped opening in bark

     

    Q4: Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?

    (1) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio

    (2) Synthesis of prostaglandins

    (3) Release of Oxytocin

    (4) Release of Prolactin

     

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    • Q1: (3)
    • Q2: (4)
    • Q3: (3)
    • Q4: (4)

     

     

  • 12:55 PM IST6 May 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – May 6, 2022

    Q1: For the given circuit, the input digital signals are applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be the output at the terminal y?

     

    Q2: The product formed in the following chemical reaction is:

     

    Q3: Match Column – I with Column – II.

     

    Q4: Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong?

    (1) Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules.

    (2) The pH of histones is slightly acidic.

    (3) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine.

    (4) Histones carry positive charge in the side chain.

     

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    • Q1: (3)
    • Q2: (4)
    • Q3: (1)
    • Q4: (2)

     

  • 11:23 AM IST5 May 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – May 5, 2022

    Q1: In the product

     

    Q2:

    Q3: Identify the correct statement.

    (1) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 39 end of hnRNA.

    (2) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.

    (3) The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA.

    (4) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes.

     

    Q4: Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.

    (1) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively.

    (2) Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.

    (3) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, respectively.

    (4) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.

     

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    • Q1: (2)
    • Q2: (3)
    • Q3: (2)
    • Q4: (2)
  • 1:17 PM IST3 May 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – May 3, 2022

    Q1:

    Q2:

     

    Q3: Which of the following statements is incorrect?

    (1) Both ATP and NADPH+H+ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.

    (2) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase.

    (3) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II.

    (4) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II.

     

    Q4: Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?

    (1) Graafian follicle

    (2) Corpus luteum

    (3) Foetus

    (4) Uterus

     

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    • Q1: (4)
    • Q2: (3)
    • Q3: (4)
    • Q4: (2)
     
  • 4:42 PM IST1 May 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – May 1, 2022

    Q1: A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is:

    (1) 0.9 MeV

    (2) 9.4 MeV

    (3) 804 MeV

    (4) 216 MeV

     

    Q2: Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits which of the following particles?

     

    Q3: The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum is:

    (1) Pyruvic acid

    (2) Oxaloacetic acid

    (3) Succinic acid

    (4) Phosphoglyceric acid

     

    Q4: If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?

    (1) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20

    (2) T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30

    (3) T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20

    (4) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25

     

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    • Q1: (4)
    • Q2: (1)
    • Q3: (2)
    • Q4: (3)

     

  • 8:12 PM IST30 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 30, 2022

    Q1: The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The fraction of original activity that will remain after 150 hours would be:

    Q2: The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of:

    (1) Vitamin B12

    (2) Vitamin B6

    (3) Vitamin B1

    (4) Vitamin B2

    Q3: The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as:

    (1) Climax

    (2) Climax community

    (3) Standing state

    (4) Standing crop

    Q4: Match List - I with List – II.

     

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    • Q1: (2)
    • Q2: (1)
    • Q3: (3)
    • Q4: (2)
  • 5:07 PM IST28 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 28, 2022

    Q1: The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-section and same material is 0.25 ?. What will be the effective resistance if they are connected in series?

    (1) 0.25 ?

    (2) 0.5 ?

    (3) 1 ?

    (4) 4 ?

    Q2: The incorrect statement among the following is:

    (1) Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element than Lanthanoid contraction.

    (2) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless in the solid state.

    (3) Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and electricity.

    (4) Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.

    Q3: Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

    (1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

    (2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

    (3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

    (4) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension

    Q4: Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by:

    (1) Alpha cells of pancreas

    (2) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis

    (3) The cells of bone marrow

    (4) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney

     

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    • Q1: (4)
    • Q2: (2)
    • Q3: (1)
    • Q4: (4)
  • 12:01 PM IST27 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 27, 2022

    Q1:

     Q2: The correct structure of 2,6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is:

    Q3: The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is:

    (1) Xenogamy

    (2) Geitonogamy

    (3) Chasmogamy

    (4) Cleistogamy

    Q4:

     

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    • Q1: (1)
    • Q2: (1)
    • Q3: (1)
    • Q4: (1)
  • 11:14 AM IST26 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 26, 2022

    Q1:

    Q2: Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction? Choose the right option.

    Q3: When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat disease, it is known as:

    (1) Biopiracy

    (2) Gene therapy

    (3) Molecular diagnosis

    (4) Safety testing

     

    Q4: Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?

    (1) Thrombin

    (2) Renin

    (3) Epinephrine

    (4) Thrombokinase

     

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    • Q1: (3)
    • Q2: (2)
    • Q3: (2)
    • Q4: (1)
     
  • 12:38 PM IST25 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 25, 2022

    Q1: The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is applied across each of them. Compare the currents in them.

    (1) current in n-type=current in p-type.

    (2) current in p-type > current in n-type.

    (3) current in n-type > current in p-type.

    (4) No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow in n-type.

     

    Q2: What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction?

    (1) 2-methyl propan-2-ol

    (2) pentan-2-ol

    (3) pentan-3-ol

    (4) 2-methyl butan-2-ol

     

    Q3:

    Q4: Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on:

    (1) Corona radiata

    (2) Vitelline membrane

    (3) Perivitelline space

    (4) Zona pellucida

     

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    • Q1: (3)
    • Q2: (4)
    • Q3: (3)
    • Q4: (4)

     

     

  • 12:25 PM IST24 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 24, 2022

    Q1: 

    Q2: Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg’s reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.

    Q3: Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants?

    (1) Morphine, codeine

    (2) Amino acids, glucose

    (3) Vinblastin, curcumin

    (4) Rubber, gums

     

    Q4: The centriole undergoes duplication during:

    (1) S-phase

    (2) Prophase

    (3) Metaphase

    (4) G2 phase

     

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    • Q1: (3)
    • Q2: (3)
    • Q3: (2)
    • Q4: (1)
  • 4:36 PM IST23 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 23, 2022

    Q1:

     

    Q2: Statement I:

    Acid strength increases in the order given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI.

    Statement II:

    As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

    (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

    (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

    (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

     

    Q3: Diadelphous stamens are found in:

    (1) China rose

    (2) Citrus

    (3) Pea

    (4) China rose and citrus

     

    Q4: Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?

    (1) Fire fly

    (2) Grasshopper

    (3) Cockroach

    (4) House fly

     

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    • Q1: (2)
    • Q2: (1)
    • Q3: (3)
    • Q4: (4)
  • 4:48 PM IST22 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 22, 2022

    Q1: In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what length of the wire, the balance point occurs?

    (1) 60 cm

    (2) 21.6 cm

    (3) 64 cm

    (4) 62 cm

     

    Q2:

     

    Q3:

    Q4: Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as “Universal recipients”. This is due to:

    (1) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs

    (2) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma

    (3) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs

    (4) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma

     

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    • Q1: (1)
    • Q2: (1)
    • Q3: (1)
    • Q4: (4)
  • 1:42 PM IST21 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 21, 2022

    Q1: A thick current carrying cable of radius ‘R’ carries current ‘I’ uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the cable with the distance ‘r’ from the axis of the cable is represented by:

    Q2: Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics.

    Statement II: Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

    (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

    (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

    (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.

     

    Q3: The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is:

    (1) Natural selection

    (2) Genetic recombination

    (3) Mutation

    (4) Genetic drift

     

    Q4: Identify the incorrect pair.

    (1) Alkaloids – Codeine

    (2) Toxin – Abrin

    (3) Lectins - Concanavalin A

    (4) Drugs – Ricin

     

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    • Q1: (3)
    • Q2: (2)
    • Q3: (4)
    • Q4: (4)
  • 12:57 PM IST20 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 20, 2022

    Q1: Polar molecules are the molecules:

    (1) having zero dipole moment.

    (2) acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of electric field due to displacement of charges.

    (3) acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field is absent.

    (4) having a permanent electric dipole moment.

     

    Q2: The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and vapour phase, are:

    (1) Chain and dimer, respectively

    (2) Linear in both

    (3) Dimer and Linear, respectively

    (4) Chain in both

     

    Q3: During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out:

    (1) RNA

    (2) DNA

    (3) Histones

    (4) Polysaccharides

     

    Q4: During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first?

    (1) Annealing

    (2) Extension

    (3) Denaturation

    (4) Ligation

     

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    • Q1: (4)
    • Q2: (1)
    • Q3: (2)
    • Q4: (3)
     
  • 5:58 PM IST18 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 18, 2022

    Q1:

     

    Q2:

    (1) 8.50

    (2) 5.50

    (3) 7.75

    (4) 6.25

     

    Q3: Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material?

    (1) Ectocarpus

    (2) Gracilaria

    (3) Volvox

    (4) Ulothrix

     

    Q4: Dobson units are used to measure the thickness of:

    (1) CFCs

    (2) Stratosphere

    (3) Ozone

    (4) Troposphere

     

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    • Q1: (2)
    • Q2: (3)
    • Q3: (1)
    • Q4: (3)

     

  • 10:49 PM IST17 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 17, 2022

    Q1: Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine? (g= 10m/s²)

    (1) 10.2 kW

    (2) 8.1 kW

    (3) 12.3 kW

    (4) 7.0 kW

     

    Q2: The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of ‘C–X’ bond is:

     

    Q3: Which of the following statements is not correct?

    (1) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.

    (2) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.

    (3) Pyramid of energy is always upright.

    (4) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.

     

    Q4: Read the following statements.

    (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.

    (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.

    (c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.

    (d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.

    (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    (1) (c), (d) and (e) are correct

    (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

    (3) (a), (d) and (e) are correct

    (4) (b), (c) and (e) are correct

     

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    • Q1: (2)
    • Q2: (2)
    • Q3: (2)
    • Q4: (4)

     

     

  • 11:05 PM IST16 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 16, 2022

    Q1: A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire

    Main scale reading: 0 mm

    Circular scale reading: 52 divisions

    Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is:

    (1) 0.52 cm

    (2) 0.026 cm

    (3) 0.26 cm

    (4) 0.052 cm

     

    Q2: Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is:

    (1) Hexadentate ligand with four “O” and two “N” donor atoms

    (2) Unidentate ligand

    (3) Bidentate ligand with two “N” donor atoms

    (4) Tridentate ligand with three “N” donor atoms

     

    Q3: Complete the flow chart on central dogma.

    (1) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein

    (2) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction

    (3) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein

    (4) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; (d)-Protein

     

    Q4: Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?

    (1) Leptotene

    (2) Zygotene

    (3) Diakinesis

    (4) Pachytene

     

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    • Q1: (4)
    • Q2: (1)
    • Q3: (3)
    • Q4: (3)
  • 12:48 PM IST14 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 14, 2022

    Q1: The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is v. The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density is:

    (1) v

    (2) 2 v

    (3) 3 v

    (4) 4 v

     

    Q2:

     

    Q3: Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:

    (1) Homosorus

    (2) Heterosorus

    (3) Homosporous

    (4) Heterosporous

     

    Q4: For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection?

    (1) Western Blotting Technique

    (2) Southern Blotting Technique

    (3) ELISA Technique

    (4) Hybridization Technique

     

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    • Q1: (4)
    • Q2: (1)
    • Q3: (4)
    • Q4: (3)
  • 1:36 PM IST13 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 13, 2022

    Q1:

     Q2: Right option for the number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are:

    (1) 8, 4
    (2) 6, 12
    (3) 2, 1
    (4) 12, 6

     

    Q3: Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

    (1) Molecular diagnosis

    (2) Gene amplification

    (3) Purification of isolated protein

    (4) Detection of gene mutation

     

    Q4: In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased?

    (1) 50%

    (2) 75%

    (3) 25%

    (4) 100%

     

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    • Q1: (4)
    • Q2: (4)
    • Q3: (3)
    • Q4: (3)
  • 11:58 AM IST12 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 12, 2022

    Q1:

     Q2:

     

    Q3: When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as:

    (1) Metacentric

    (2) Telocentric

    (3) Sub-metacentric

    (4) Acrocentric

     

    Q4: Which is the “Only enzyme” that has “Capability” to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes?

    (1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase

    (2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase

    (3) DNA Ligase

    (4) Dnase

     

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    • Q1: (3)
    • Q2: (2)
    • Q3: (1)
    • Q4: (2)
     
  • 6:05 PM IST11 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 11, 2022

    Q1: A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since:

    (1) A large aperture contributes to the quality and visibility of the images.

    (2) A large area of the objective ensures better light-gathering power.

    (3) A large aperture provides a better resolution.

    (4) All of the above.

     

    Q2: Zr (Z=40) and Hf (Z=72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of:

    (1) belonging to same group

    (2) diagonal relationship

    (3) lanthanoid contraction

    (4) having similar chemical properties

     

    Q3: Which of the following plants is monoecious?

    (1) Carica papaya

    (2) Chara

    (3) Marchantia polymorpha

    (4) Cycas circinalis

     

    Q4: The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During the interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes in the G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after the S phase?

    (1) 8

    (2) 16

    (3) 4

    (4) 32

     

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    • Q1: (4)
    • Q2: (3)
    • Q3: (2)
    • Q4: (1)
  • 10:02 PM IST10 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 10, 2022

    Q1:

     

    Q2:

     

    Q3: The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is:

    (1) Shoot apex

    (2) Stem

    (3) Axillary bud

    (4) Leaf

     

    Q4: With regard to insulin choose correct options.

    (a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.

    (b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.

    (c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.

    (d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    (1) (b) and (d) only

    (2) (b) and (c) only

    (3) (a), (c) and (d) only

    (4) (a) and (d) only

     

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    • Q1: (4)
    • Q2: (1)
    • Q3: (4)
    • Q4: (3)
  • 12:06 PM IST9 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 9, 2022

    Q1:

     

    Q2: The maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast furnace is:

    (1) upto 1200 K

    (2) upto 2200 K

    (3) upto 1900 K

    (4) upto 5000 K

     

    Q3:

     

    Q4: Veneral diseases can spread through:

    (a) Using sterile needles

    (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person

    (c) Infected mother to foetus

    (d) Kissing

    (e) Inheritance

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    (1) (a), (b) and (c) only

    (2) (b), (c) and (d) only

    (3) (b) and (c) only

    (4) (a) and (c) only

     

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    • Q1: (3)
    • Q2: (2)
    • Q3: (2)
    • Q4: (3)
  • 1:09 PM IST8 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 8, 2022

    Q1: A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is suspended by it is:

    (1) 0.0628 s

    (2) 6.28 s

    (3) 3.14 s

    (4) 0.628 s

     

    Q2: An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirical formula of this compound is: [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]

    (1) CH

    (2) CH2

    (3) CH3

    (4) CH4

     

    Q3: Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?

    (1) Metaphase I

    (2) Metaphase II

    (3) Anaphase II

    (4) Telophase II

     

    Q4: Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops?

    (1) Improve protein content

    (2) Improve resistance to diseases

    (3) Improve vitamin content

    (4) Improve micronutrient and mineral content

     

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    • Q1: (4)
    • Q2: (3)
    • Q3: (3)
    • Q4: (2)
  • 11:54 PM IST7 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 7, 2022

    Q1: Column - I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor. Column - II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match Column - I and Column - II with appropriate relations.

    Q2: Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is:

    Q3:
     Q4: Succus entericus is referred to as:

    (1) Pancreatic juice

    (2) Intestinal juice

    (3) Gastric juice

    (4) Chyme

     

     

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    • Q1: (1)
    • Q2: (4)
    • Q3: (2)
    • Q4: (2)
  • 8:02 PM IST6 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 6, 2022

    Q1: For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x-direction, which one of the following combination gives the correct possible directions for electric field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?

     
    Q2: Choose the correct option for graphical representation of Boyle’s law, which shows a graph of pressure vs. volume of a gas at different temperatures :
     
     
     
    Q3: Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:

    (1) Kinetin

    (2) Infrared rays

    (3) Gamma rays

    (4) Zeatin

     

    Q4: Match the following:

     

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    • Q1: (2)
    • Q2: (4)
    • Q3: (3)
    • Q4: (3)
  • 10:44 AM IST5 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 5, 2022

    Q1: The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is d/2, then the viscous force acting on the ball will be:

    (1) Mg/2

    (2) Mg

    (3) 3/2 Mg

    (4) 2Mg

     

    Q2: The major product of the following chemical reaction is:

     

    Q3: Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?

    (1) Green algae

    (2) Brown algae

    (3) Red algae

    (4) Blue-green algae

     

    Q4: Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?

    (1) These muscle have no striations

    (2) They are involuntary muscles

    (3) Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs

    (4) These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels

     

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    • Q1: (1)
    • Q2: (1)
    • Q3: (3)
    • Q4: (3)
  • 10:25 AM IST4 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 4, 2022

    Q1: A particle is released from height S from the surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three times its potential energy. The height from the surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that instant are respectively:

     
    Q2: Which one of the following polymers is prepared by addition polymerisation?

    (1) Teflon

    (2) Nylon-66

    (3) Novolac

    (4) Dacron


     
    Q3: The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is:

    (1) IAA

    (2) NAA

    (3) 2, 4-D

    (4) IBA

     

    Q4:

     

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    • Q1: (4)
    • Q2: (1)
    • Q3: (3)
    • Q4: (1)
  • 9:57 PM IST3 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 3, 2022

    Q1:

     

    Q2:

     

    Q3: A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:

    (1) 8-nucleate and 7-celled

    (2) 7-nucleate and 8-celled

    (3) 7-nucleate and 7-celled

    (4) 8-nucleate and 8-celled

     

    Q4: Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein?

    (1) mRNA

    (2) tRNA

    (3) rRNA

    (4) siRNA

     

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    • Q1: (2)
    • Q2: (2)
    • Q3: (1)
    • Q4: (4)
  • 1:38 PM IST2 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 2, 2022

    Q1: If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of energy.

     

    Q2: Which one of the following methods can be used to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room temperature?

    (1) Electrolysis

    (2) Chromatography

    (3) Distillation

    (4) Zone refining

     

    Q3: Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

    (1) Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.

    (2) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.

    (3) The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.

    (4) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplasm.

     

    Q4: A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is:

    (1) Degenerate primer sequence

    (2) Okazaki sequences

    (3) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences

    (4) Poly(A) tail sequences

     

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    • Q1: (2)
    • Q2: (3)
    • Q3: (1)
    • Q4: (3)
  • 5:15 PM IST1 Apr 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – April 1, 2022

    Q1: A convex lens ‘A’ of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens ‘B’ of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance ‘d’ between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on ‘A’ leaves ‘B’ as a parallel beam, then the distance ‘d’ in cm will be: 

    (1) 25

    (2) 15

    (3) 50

    (4) 30

     

    Q2: Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is:

    (1) Calcium chloride

    (2) Strontium chloride

    (3) Magnesium chloride

    (4) Beryllium chloride

     

    Q3: Plants follow different pathways in response to the environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called:

    (1) Elasticity

    (2) Flexibility

    (3) Plasticity

    (4) Maturity

     

    Q4: Match List - I with List - II.

     

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    • Q1: (3)
    • Q2: (4)
    • Q3: (3)
    • Q4: (3)

     

  • 3:23 PM IST31 Mar 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – March 31, 2022

    Q1: Match Column – I and Column – II and choose the correct match from the given choices.

    (1) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) – (Q)

    (2) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) – (P)

    (3) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R)

    (4) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S)

     

    Q2: The right option for the statement “Tyndall effect is exhibited by”, is:

    (1) NaCl solution

    (2) Glucose solution

    (3) Starch solution

    (4) Urea solution

     
    Q3: Gemmae are present in:

    (1) Mosses

    (2) Pteridophytes

    (3) Some Gymnosperms

    (4) Some Liverworts

     

    Q4: The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are:

    (1) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes

    (2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles

    (3) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes

    (4) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Lysosomes

     

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    • Q1: (3)
    • Q2: (3)
    • Q3: (4)
    • Q4: (2)
     
  • 12:06 PM IST30 Mar 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – March 30, 2022

    Q1: A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which direction will it move?

    (1) towards the left as its potential energy will increase.

    (2) towards the right as its potential energy will decrease.

    (3) towards the left as its potential energy will decrease.

    (4) towards the right as its potential energy will increase.

     

    Q2: BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization and number of electrons around the central atom, respectively are:

     

     Q3: DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as:

    (1) Yellow bands

    (2) Bright orange bands

    (3) Dark red bands

    (4) Bright blue bands

    Q4: Sphincter of oddi is present at:

    (1) Ileo-caecal junction

    (2) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum

    (3) Gastro-oesophageal junction

    (4) Junction of jejunum and duodenum

     

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    • Q1: (2)
    • Q2: (3)
    • Q3: (2)
    • Q4: (2)

  • 11:02 AM IST29 Mar 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – March 29, 2022

    Q1:

     
    Q2: The compound which shows metamerism is:

     

    Q3: The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a diagram called:

    (1) Bullet square

    (2) Punch square

    (3) Punnett square

    (4) Net square

     

    Q4: Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.

     

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    Q1: (1) Q2: (4) Q3: (3) Q4: (1)

  • 11:24 AM IST28 Mar 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – March 28, 2022

    Q1:

     Q2: The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on?

    (1) Saytzeff’s Rule

    (2) Hund’s Rule

    (3) Hofmann Rule

    (4) Huckel’s Rule

    Q3:

     Q4: Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach?

    (1) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut.

    (2) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts.

    (3) In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital pouch.

    (4) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci.

     

     

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    Q1: (2) Q2: (1) Q3: (1) Q4: (1)

     

  • 1:22 PM IST27 Mar 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – March 27, 2022

    Q1: A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency ‘n’, the frequency of its potential energy is:

    (1) n

    (2) 2n

    (3) 3n

    (4) 4n

    Q2: Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.

    (1) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water.

    (2) Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points.

    (3) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.

    (4) Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain enthalpy.

    Q3: Amensalism can be represented as:

    (1) Species A (?); Species B (0)

    (2) Species A (+); Species B (+)

    (3) Species A (?); Species B (?)

    (4) Species A (+); Species B (0)

    Q4: Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?

    (1) CuT

    (2) LNG 20

    (3) Cu 7

    (4) Multiload 375

     

     

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    Q1: (2) Q2: (2) Q3: (1) Q4: (2)

  • 12:03 PM IST26 Mar 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – March 26, 2022

    Q1:

     

    Q2: The correct option for the number of body centred unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is:

    (1) 7

    (2) 5

    (3) 2

    (4) 3

    Q3: Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival?

    (1) Resource partitioning

    (2) Competitive release

    (3) Mutualism

    (4) Predation

    Q4: Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as:

    (1) Arthritis

    (2) Muscular dystrophy

    (3) Myasthenia gravis

    (4) Gout

     

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    Q1: (1) Q2: (4) Q3: (1) Q4: (3)

     

  • 12:23 PM IST25 Mar 2022

    NEET Daily Practice Test – March 25, 2022

    Q1: Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer.

    (A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator.

    (B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.

    (1) (A) and (B) both are correct.

    (2) (A) and (B) both are incorrect.

    (3) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.

    (4) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.

    Q2: Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole of ideal gas?

    (1) CP+CV=R

    (2) CP?CV=R

    (3) CP=RCV

    (4) CV=RCP

    Q3: In the equation GPP?R=NPP R represents:

    (1) Radiant energy

    (2) Retardation factor

    (3) Environment factor

    (4) Respiration losses

    Q4: Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?

    (1) Neophron

    (2) Hemidactylus

    (3) Macropus

    (4) Ornithorhynchus

     

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    Q1: (3) Q2: (2) Q3: (4) Q4: (1)  

     

About the Author
Sreetama Datta Roy
Manager Content

Sreetama has over a decade of editorial experience in the higher education beat. A wanderlust by passion, she is also an avid reader and a music lover. Among friends, she is popular for her sense of humour.

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