Chemistry NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12th Chapter Five: Overview, Questions, Preparation

Chemistry NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12th Chapter Five 2025 ( Chemistry NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12th Chapter Five )

Payal Gupta
Updated on Jul 22, 2025 15:15 IST

By Payal Gupta, Retainer

Table of content
  • Surface Chemistry Questions and Answers
  • JEE Mains 2022
  • JEE Mains Solutions 2022,29th june , Chemistry , first shift
  • JEE Mains 2022
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Chemistry NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12th Chapter Five Logo

Surface Chemistry Questions and Answers

1. What is the role of adsorption in heterogenous catalysis?

This is a Long Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: In heterogeneous catalysis reactants are generally in gas phase and catalyst are in solid phase. The activity of a catalyst depends upon the strength of chemisorption to a large extent. The reactants must get adsorbed reasonably strongly on to the catalyst to become active. However, they must not get adsorbed so strongly that they are immobilized and other reactants are left with no space on the catalyst’s surface for adsorption. It has been found that for hydrogenation reaction, the catalytic activity increases from Group 5 to Group 11 metals with maximum activity being shown by groups 7-9 elements of the periodic table. Catalyst also directs a reaction to yield a particular product. For example, starting with H2 and CO, and using different catalysts, we get different products.

2. What are the applications of adsorption in chemical analysis?

This is a Long Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans:  (i) Separation of inert gases: Due to a difference in the degree of adsorption of gases by charcoal, a mixture of noble gases can be separated by adsorption on coconut, a charcoal at different temperatures.

(ii) Adsorption indicators: Surfaces of certain precipitates such as silver halides have the property of adsorbing some dyes like eosin, fluorescein, and so produce a characteristic colour at end point.

(iii) Chromatographic analysis: It is based on the phenomenon of adsorption and has a number of applications in analytical and industrial fields.

3. What is the role of adsorption in froth floatation process used especially for concentration of sulphide ores?

This is a Long Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: This method is used for removing gangue from sulphide ores. In this, a suspension of powdered ore is made with water. To which both the collectors and froth stabilisers are added. Collectors for example pine oils, fatty acids, xanthates enhance non-wettability of the mineral particles and froth stabilisers such as cresols, aniline stabilise the froth.

4. What do you understand by shape selective catalysis? Why are zeolites good shape selective catalysts?

This is a Long Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Catalytic reaction which depends on the pore structure of catalyst and size of the reactant, product molecules is known as shape-selective catalysis. Zeolites are considered as good shape-selective catalysts due to their honeycomb-like structures. They are aluminosilicates with three-dimensional network of silicates wherein some of the silicon atoms are replaced by aluminium atoms giving Al-O-Si frame work. The reactions taking place in zeolites depends upon size and shape of reactant and product molecules, the pores and cavities of the zeolites also. They are found in nature and synthesised for catalysts selectivity. Zeolites are widely used as catalysts in petrochemical industries for cracking of hydrocarbons and isomerisation.

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Commonly asked questions
Q:  

Why are some medicines more effective in the colloidal form?

Q:  

How will you distinguish between dispersed phase and dispersion medium in an emulsion? 

Q:  

Why is desorption important for a substance to act as good catalyst? 

Q:  

What is the role of diffusion in heterogenous catalysis? 

Q:  

How does a solid catalyst enhance the rate of combination of gaseous molecules?

Q:  

Do the vital functions of the body such as digestion get affected during fever? Explain your answer.

Q:  

Which of the following process does not occur at the interface of phases?

(i) Crystallisation

(ii) Heterogeneous catalysis

(iii) Homogeneous catalysis

(iv) Corrosion

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Q:  

At the equilibrium position in the process of adsorption  ?

(i) ΔH > 0

(ii) ΔH = TΔS

(iii)  ΔH > TΔS

(iv)  ΔH < TΔS

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Q:  

Which of the following interface cannot be obtained?

(i) Liquid-liquid

(ii) Solid-liquid

(iii)  Liquid-gas

(iv)  Gas-gas.

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Q:  

The term ‘sorption’ stands for .

(i) Absorption

(ii) Adsorption

(iii)  Both absorption and adsorption

(iv)  Desorption

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Q:  

Extent of physisorption of a gas increases with  

(i) Increase in temperature.

(ii) Decrease in temperature.

(iii) Decrease in surface area of adsorbent.

(iv) Decrease in strength of van der waals forces

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Q:  

Extent of adsorption of adsorbate from solution phase increases with

(i) Increase in amount of adsorbate in solution.

(ii) Decrease in surface area of adsorbent.

(iii)  Increase in temperature of solution.

(iv)  Decrease in amount of adsorbate in solution.

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Q:  

Which one of the following is not applicable to the phenomenon of adsorption?

(i) ΔH > 0

(ii) ΔG < 0

(iii)  ΔS < 0

(iv) ΔH < 0

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Q:  

Which of the following is not a favourable condition for physical adsorption?

(i) High pressure

(ii) Negative δh

(iii)  Higher critical temperature of adsorbate

(iv)  High temperature

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Q:  

Physical adsorption of a gaseous species may change to chemical adsorption with

(i) Decrease in temperature

(ii) Increase in temperature

(iii)  Increase in surface area of adsorbent

(iv)  Decrease in surface area of adsorbent.

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Q:  

In physisorption adsorbent does not show specificity for any particular gas because

(i) Involved van der Waals forces are universal.

(ii) Gases involved behave like ideal gases.

(iii)  Enthalpy of adsorption is low.

(iv)  It is a reversible process.

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Q:  

Which of the following is an example of absorption?

(i) Water on silica gel

(ii) Water on calcium chloride

(iii) Hydrogen on finely divided nickel

(iv) Oxygen on metal surface

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Q:  

On the basis of data given below predict which of the following gases shows least adsorption on a definite amount of charcoal?

Gas

CO2

SO2

CH4

H2

Critical temp./K

304

630

190

33

(i) CO2

(ii) SO2

(iii) CH4

(iv) H2 

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Q:  

In which of the following reactions heterogenous catalysis is involved? 

(a) 2SO2( g)+O2( g)+NO(g)→2SO3( g)

(b) 2SO2( g)+Pt(s)→2SO3( g)

(c) N2( g)+3H2( g)+Fe(s)→2NH3( g)

(d) CH3COOCH3(�)+H2O(�)+���(�)→CH3COOH(��)+CH3OH(��)

(i) (b), (c)

(ii) (b), (c), (d)

(iii) (a), (b), (c)

(iv) (d)

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Q:  

At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as 

(i) Molecular colloid

(ii) Associated colloid

(iii) Macromolecular colloid

(iv) Lyophilic colloid

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Q:  

Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

(i) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration.

(ii) Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration.

(iii)  Aqueous solution of sodium chloride.

(iv)  Aqueous solution of sugar.

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Q:  

Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected.

(i) By addition of oppositely charged sol.

(ii) By addition of an electrolyte.

(iii) By addition of lyophilic sol.

(iv) By boiling.

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Q:  

Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by _________.

(i) Coagulation

(ii) Electrolysis

(iii) Diffusion

(iv) Peptisation

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Q:  

Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag+ sol?

(i) Na2

(ii) Na3PO4

(iii) Na2SO4

(iv) NaCl

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Q:  

A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion medium is classified as .

(i) Solid sol

(ii) Gel

(iii) Emulsion

(iv)  Sol

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Q:  

The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison to those shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles  .

(i) Exhibit enormous surface area.

(ii) Remain suspended in the dispersion medium.

(iii)  Form lyophilic colloids.

(iv)  Are comparatively less in number.

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Q:  

Arrange the following diagrams in correct sequence of steps involved in the mechanism of catalysis, in accordance with modern adsorption theory

(i) a →b →c →d →e

(ii) a →c →b →d →e

(iii) a →c →b →e →d

(iv) a →b →c →e →d

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Q:  

Which of the following process is responsible for the formation of delta at a place where rivers meet the sea?

(i) Emulsification

(ii) Colloid formation

(iii) Coagulation

(iv) Peptisation

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Q:  

Which of the following process is not responsible for the presence of electric charge on the sol particles?

(i) Electron capture by sol particles.

(ii) Adsorption of ionic species from solution.

(iii) Formation of Helmholtz electrical double layer.

(iv) Absorption of ionic species from solution.

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Q:  

Which of the following phenomenon is applicable to the process shown in the Fig. 5.1?

(i) Absorption

(ii) Adsorption

(iii) Coagulation

(iv) Emulsification

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Q:  

Which of the following options are correct?

(i) Micelle formation by soap in aqueous solution is possible at all temperatures.

(ii) Micelle formation by soap in aqueous solution occurs above a particular concentration.

(iii) On dilution of soap solution micelles may revert to individual ions.

(iv) Soap solution behaves as a normal strong electrolyte at all concentrations.

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Q:  

Which of the following statements are correct about solid catalyst?

(i) Same reactants may give different product by using different catalysts.

(ii) Catalyst does not change ΔH of reaction.

(iii) Catalyst is required in large quantities to catalyse reactions.

(iv) Catalytic activity of a solid catalyst does not depend upon the strength of chemisorption.

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Q:  

Freundlich adsorption isotherm is given by the expression x/m= kp1/x which of the following conclusion can be drawn from this expression.

(i) When 1/n= 0, the adsorption is independent of pressure.

(ii) When 1/n= 0, the adsorption is directly proportional to pressure.

(iii) When n= 0, x/m vs p graph is a line parallel to x-axis.

(iv) When n= 0, plot of x/m vs p is a curve.

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Q:  

H2 gas is adsorbed on activated charcoal to a very little extent in comparison to easily liquefiable gases due to ____________.

(i) Very strong van der Waal’s interaction.

(ii) Very weak van der Waals forces.

(iii) Very low critical temperature.

(iv) Very high critical temperature.

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Q:  

Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) Mixing two oppositely charged sols neutralises their charges and stabilises the colloid.

(ii) Presence of equal and similar charges on colloidal particles provides stability to the colloids.

(iii) Any amount of dispersed liquid can be added to emulsion without destabilising it.

(iv) Brownian movement stabilises sols.

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Q:  

An emulsion cannot be broken by __________ and ___________.

(i) Heating

(ii) Adding more amount of dispersion medium

(iii) Freezing

(iv) Adding emulsifying agent

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Q:  

Which  of the  following substances will  precipitate  the  negatively  charged emulsions?

(i) KCl           

(ii) Glucose                 

(iii)  Urea               

(iv)  NaCl

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Q:  

Which  of the  following colloids  cannot  be  coagulated easily?

(i) Lyophobic colloids.

(ii) Irreversible colloids.

(iii) Reversible  colloids.

(iv) Lyophilic colloids.

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Q:  

What happens when a lyophilic sol is added to a lyophobic sol?

(i) Lyophobic sol is protected.

(ii) Lyophilic sol is protected.

(iii) Film of lyophilic sol is  formed  over  lyophobic sol.

(iv) Film of lyophobic sol is formed  over  lyophilic 

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Q:  

Which phenomenon occurs when an electric field is applied to a colloidal solution and electrophoresis is prevented? 

(i) Reverse osmosis takes place. 

(ii) Electroosmosis takes place. 

(iii) Dispersion medium begins to move.

(iv) Dispersion medium becomes stationary. 

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Q:  

In a reaction, catalyst changes ____________.

(i) Physically

(ii) Qualitatively

(iii) Chemically

(iv) Quantitatively

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Q:  

Which of the following phenomenon occurs when a chalk stick is dipped in ink?

(i) Adsorption of coloured substance

(ii) Adsorption of solvent

(iii) Absorption and adsorption both of solvent

(iv) Absorption of solvent

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Q:  

Method of information of solution is given in Column I. Match it with the type of solution given in Column II

Column I

Column II

(i) Sulphur vapours passed through cold water

(a) Normal electrolyte solution

(ii) Soap mixed with water above critical micelle concentration

(b) Molecular colloids

(iii) White of egg whipped with water

(c) Associated colloid

(iv) Soap mixed with water below critical micelle concentration

(d) Macro molecular colloids

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Q:  

Match the statement given in Column I with the phenomenon given in Column II.

Column I

Column II

(i) Dispersion medium moves in an electric field

(a) Osmosis

(ii) Solvent molecules pass through semi permeable membrane towards solvent side

(b) Electrophoresis

(iii) Movement of charged colloidal particles under the influence of applied electric potential towards oppositely charged electrodes

(c) Electroosmosis

(iv) Solvent molecules pass through semi permeable membranes towards solution side

(d) Reverse osmosis

Q:  

Match the items given in Column I and Column II.

Column I

Column II

(i) Protective colloid

(a) FeCl3 + NaOH

(ii) Liquid - liquid colloid

(b) Lyophilic colloids

(iii) Positively charged colloid

(c) Emulsion

(iv) Negatively charged colloid

(d) FeCl3 + hot water

Q:  

Match the types of colloidal systems given in Column I with the name given in Column II.

Column I

Column II

(i) Solid in liquid

(a) Foam

(ii) Liquid in solid

(b) Sol

(iii) Liquid in liquid

(c) Gel

(iv) Gas in liquid

(d) Emulsion

Q:  

Match the items of Column I and Column II.

Column I

Column II

(i) Dialysis

(a) Cleansing action of soap

(ii) Peptisation

(b) Coagulation

(iii) Emulsification

(c) Colloidal sol formation

(iv) Electrophoresis

(d) Purification

Q:  

Match the items of Column I and Column II.

Column I

Column II

(i) Butter

(a) dispersion of liquid in liquid

(ii) Pumice stone

(b) dispersion of solid in liquid

(iii) Milk

(c) dispersion of gas in solid

(iv) Paints

(d) dispersion of liquid in solid

Q:  

In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.

(i) Assertion and reason both are correct and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.

(ii) Assertion and reason both are correct but reason does not explain assertion.

(iii) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.

(iv) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

(v)  Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

1. Assertion: An ordinary filter paper impregnated with collodion solution stops the flow of colloidal particles.

Reason: Pore size of the filter paper becomes more than the size of colloidal particle.

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Q:  

Assertion: Colloidal solutions show colligative properties.

Reason: Colloidal particles are large in size. 

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Q:  

Assertion: Colloidal solutions do not show brownian motion.

Reason: Brownian motion is responsible for stability of sols.

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Q:  

Assertion: Coagulation power of Al3+ is more than Na+.

Reason: Greater the valency of the flocculating ion added, greater is its power to cause precipitation (Hardy Schulze rule).

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Q:  

Assertion: Detergents with low CMC are more economical to use

Reason: Cleansing action of detergents involves the formation of micelles. These are formed when the concentration of detergents becomes equal to CMC.

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Q:  

What is the role of adsorption in heterogenous catalysis?

Q:  

What are the applications of adsorption in chemical analysis?

Q:  

What is the role of adsorption in froth floatation process used especially for concentration of sulphide ores?

Read more
Q:  

What do you understand by shape selective catalysis? Why are zeolites good shape selective catalysts?

Read more
Q:  

Why is it important to have clean surface in surface studies?

Q:  

Why is chemisorption referred to as activated adsorption? 

Q:  

What type of solutions are formed on dissolving different concentrations of soap in water?

Q:  

What happens when gelatin is mixed with gold sol?

Q:  

How does it become possible to cause artificial rain by spraying silver iodide on the clouds?

Q:  

Gelatin which is a peptide is added in ice creams. What can be its role?

Q:  

What is collodion?                       

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Q:  

Why do we add alum to purify water

Q:  

What happens when electric field is applied to colloidal solution?

Q:  

What causes brownian motion in colloidal dispersion? 

Q:  

A colloid is formed by adding FeCl3 in excess of hot water. What will happen if excess sodium chloride is added to this colloid?

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Q:  

How do emulsifying agents stabilise the emulsion?

Q:  

Why does leather get hardened after tanning?

Q:  

How does the precipitation of colloidal smoke take place in Cottrell precipitator?

Q:  

On the basis of Hardy-Schulze rule explain why the coagulating power of phosphate is higher than chloride.

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Q:  

Why does bleeding stop by rubbing moist alum? 

Q:  

Why is Fe(OH)3 colloid positively charged, when prepared by adding FeCl3 to hot water?

Q:  

Why dophysisorption and chemisorption behave differently with rise in temperature?

Q:  

What happens when dialysis is prolonged?

Q:  

Why does the white precipitate of silver halide become coloured in the presence of dye eosin. 

Q:  

What is the role of activated charcoal in gas mask used in coal mines?

Q:  

How does a delta form at the meeting place of sea and river?

Q:  

Give an example where physisorption changes to chemisorption with rise in temperature. Explain the reason for change.

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Chemistry NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12th Chapter Five Logo

JEE Mains 2022

JEE Mains 2022

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Commonly asked questions
Q:  

Geraniol, a volatile organic compound, is a component of rose oil. The density of the vapour is 0.46 gL-1 at 257°C and 100 mm Hg. The molar mass of geraniol is___________ g mol-1 (Nearest Integer).

[Given R = 0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1]

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Q:  

17.0g of NH3 completely vapourises at -33.42°C and 1 bar pressure and the enthalpy change the process is 23.4 kJ mol-1. The enthalpy change for the vapourisation of 85g of NH3 under the same conditions is_____ kJ.

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Q:  

1.2 mL of acetic acid is dissolved in water to make 2.0L of solution. The depression in freezing point observed for this strength of acid is 0.0198°C. The percentage of dissociation of the acid is_____________. (Nearest Integer).

[Given Density of acetic acid is 1.02g mL-1

Molar mass of acetic acid is 60g mol-1]

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Q:  

A dilute solution of sulphuric acid is electrolyzed using a current of 0.10 A for 2 hours to produce hydrogen and oxygen gas. The total volume of gases produced at STP is __________ cm3. (Nearest Integer).

[Given: Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol-1 at STP, molar volume of an ideal gas is 22.7 L mol-1]

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Q:  

The activation energy of one of the reactions is a biochemical process is 532611 J mol-1 when the temperature falls from 310 K to 300 K, the change in rate constant observed is k300 = x × 10-3 k310. The value of x is___________.

[Given: In 10 = 2.3 R = 8.3 JK-1 mol-1]

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Q:  

The number of terminal oxygen atoms present in the product B obtained from the following reaction is_____________.

FeCr2O4+Na2CO3+O2A+Fe2O3+CO2

A+H+B+H2O+Na+

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Q:  

An acidified magnate solution undergoes disproportionation reaction. The spin- only magnetic moment value of the product having manganese in higher oxidation state is________ B.M. (Nearest Integer)

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Q:  

Kjeldahl’s method was used for the estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound. The ammonia evolved from 0.55g of the compound neutralized 12.5 mL of 1M H2SO4 solution. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is_________ (Nearest Integer)

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Q:  

Observe structure of the following compounds

The total number of structures / compounds which possess asymmetric atoms is________.

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Q:  

 C6H12O6Zymase A ΔNaOlB+CHl3

The number of carbon atoms present in the product B is______________.

Q:  

Production of iron in blast furnace follows the following equation

F e 3 O 4 ( s ) + 4 C O ( g ) 3 F e ( I ) + 4 C O 2 ( g )

When 4.640 kg of Fe3O4 and 2.520 kg of CO are allowed to react then the amount of iron (in g) produced is:

[Given : Molar Atomic mass (g mo-1); Fe = 56

 Molar Atomic mass (g mol-1); O = 16

Molar Atomic mass (g mol-1); C = 12]

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Q:  

Which of the following statements are correct?

           (A) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d54s1.

           (B) The magnetic quantum number may a negative value.

           (C) In the ground state of an atom, the orbitals are filled in order of their increasing energies.

           (D) The total number of nodes are given by (n-2)

           Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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Q:  

Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their covalent character:

           (A) LiCl
            (B) NaCl

          (C) KCl

           (D) CsCl

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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Q:  

The solubility of AgCl will be maximum in which of the following?

Q:  

Which of the following is a correct statements?

           (a) Brownian motion destabilizes sols

           (b) Any amount of dispersed phase can be added to emulsion without establishing it.

           (c) Mixing two oppositely charged sols in equal amount neutralizes charges and stabilizes colloids.

           (d) Presence of equal and similar charges on colloidal particles provides stability to the colloidal solution.

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Chemistry NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12th Chapter Five Logo

JEE Mains Solutions 2022,29th june , Chemistry , first shift

JEE Mains Solutions 2022,29th june , Chemistry , first shift

Q&A Icon
Commonly asked questions
Q:  

Production of iron in blast furnace follows the following equation

Fe3O4(s)+4CO(g)3Fe(I)+4CO2(g)

When 4.640 kg of Fe3O4 and 2.520 kg of CO are allowed to react then the amount of iron (in g) produced is:

[Given : Molar Atomic mass (g mo-1); Fe = 56

Molar Atomic mass (g mol-1); O = 16

Molar Atomic mass (g mol-1); C = 12]

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Q:  

Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d54s1.

(B) The magnetic quantum number may a negative value.

(C) In the ground state of an atom, the orbitals are filled in order of their increasing energies.

(D) The total number of nodes are given by (n-2)

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Q:  

Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their covalent character:

(A) LiCl
(B) NaCl
(C) KCl
(D) CsCl

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Q:  

The solubility of AgCl will be maximum in which of the following?

Q:  

Which of the following is a correct statements?

Q:  

The electronic configuration of Pt (atomic number 78) is:

Q:  

In isolation of which one of the following metals from their ores, the use of cyanide salt is not commonly involved?

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Q:  

Which one of the following reactions indicates the reducing ability of hydrogen peroxide in basic medium?

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Q:  

Match List – I with List – II

  List – I                                                                              List – II

(Metal)                                                                            (Emitted light wavelength (nm))

(A) Li                                                                                 (I) 670.8

(B) Na                                                                               (II) 589.2

(C) Rb                                                                               (III) 780.0

(D) Cs                                                                               (IV) 455.5

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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Q:  

Match the List – I with List – II

             List – I                                                                               List – II

           (Metal)                                                                            (Application)

           (A) Cs                                                                               (I) High temperature thermometer

           (B) Ga                                                                               (II) Water repellent sprays

           (C) B                                                                                  (III) Photoelectric cells

           (D) Si                                                                                 (IV) Bullet proof vest

           Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

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Q:  

The oxoacid of phosphorus that is easily obtained from a reaction alkali and white phosphorus and has two P-H bonds, is:

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Q:  

The acid that is believed to be mainly responsible for the damage of Taj Mahal is

Q:  

Two isomers ‘A’ and ‘B’ with molecular formula C4H8 give different products on oxidation with KMnO4 is acidic medium. Isomer ‘A’ on reaction with KMnO4/H+ results in effervescence of a gas and given ketone. The compound ‘A’ is

 

 

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Q:  

In the given conversion the compound A is:

 

Q:  

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The esterification of carboxylic acid with an alcohol is a nucleophilc acyl substitution.

Statement II: Electron withdrawing groups in the carboxylic acid will increase the rate of esterification reaction

Choose the most appropriate option:

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Q:  

The polymer, which can be stretched and retains its original status on releasing the force is

Q:  

Sugar moiety in DNA and RNA molecules respectively are

Q:  

Which of the following compound does not contain sulfur atom?

Q:  

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Phenols are weakly acidic

Statement II : Therefore they are freely soluble in NaOH solution and are weaker acids than alcohols and water

Choose the most appropriate options:

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Chemistry NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12th Chapter Five Logo

JEE Mains 2022

JEE Mains 2022

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Commonly asked questions
Q:  

If a rocket runs on a fuel (C15H30) and liquid oxygen, the weight of oxygen required and CO2 released for every litre of fuel respectively are :                                                                                                

(Given : density of the fuel is 0.756 g/mL)

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Q:  

Consider the following pairs of electrons

(a) n = 3 , l = 1 , m l = 1 , m s = + 1 2

(b) n = 3 , l = 2 , m l = 1 , m s = + 1 2

(a) n = 3 , l = 2 , m l = 2 , m s = 1 2

(b) n = 3 , l = 2 , m l = 1 , m s = 1 2

(a)  n = 4 , l = 2 , m l = 2 , m s = + 1 2

(b) n = 3 , l = 2 , m l = 2 , m s = + 1 2

The pairs of electrons present in degenerate orbitals is/are :

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Q:  

Match List – I with List – II                                                                                               (Chemical Bonding)

List – I                                          List – II

(A)  [PtCl4]2-                                 (I)   sp3d

(B)  BrF5                                       (II)  d2sp3

(C)  PCl5                                        (III) dsp2

(D)  [Co(NH3)6]3+                         (iv) sp3d2

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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Q:  

For a reaction at equilibrium                                                                                      

A ( g ) ? B ( g ) + 1 2 C ( g )

The relation between dissociation constant (K), degree of dissociation (a) and equilibrium pressure (p) is given by

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Q:  

Given below are two statements :                                                       

Statement I : Emulsions of oil in water are unstable and sometimes they separate into two layers on standing.

Statement II : For stabilization of an emulsion, excess of electrolyte is added. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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Q:  

Given below are the oxides :                                                                                                                        

Na2O, As2O3, N2O, NO and Cl2O7

Number of amphoteric oxides is :

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Q:  

Match List – I with List – II:                                                                                                                                 

                  List – I                                   List – II

           (A)  Sphalerite                            (I)   FeCO3

           (B)  Calamine                              (II)  PbS

           (C)  Galena                                  (III) ZnCO3

           (D)  Siderite                                 (IV) ZnS

           Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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Q:  

The highest industrial consumption of molecular hydrogen is to produce compounds of element :

Q:  

Which of the following statements are correct?                                                                    

(A)  Both LiCl and MgCl2 are soluble in ethanol

(B)  The oxides Li2O and MgO combine with excess of oxygen to give superoxide.

(C)  LiF is less soluble in water than other alkali metal fluorides.

(D)  Li2O is more soluble in water than other alkali metal oxides.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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Q:  

Identify the correct statement from B2H6 from those given below :             

(A)  In B2H6, all B-H bonds are equivalent

(B)  In B2H6, there are four 3-centre 2- electron bonds

(C)  B2H6 is a Lewis acid

(D)  B2H6 can be synthesized from both BF3 and NaBH4.

(E)  B2H6 is planar molecule.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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Q:  

The most stable trihalide of nitrogen is

Q:  

Which one of the following elemental forms is not present in the enamel of the teeth?

Q:  

In the given reaction sequence, the major product ‘C’ is : :           

C 8 H 1 0 H 2 S O 4 H N O 3 A Δ B r 2 B K O H a l c o h o l i c C

 

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Q:  

Two statement are given below:

Statement I : The melting point of monocarboxylic acid even number of carbon atoms is higher than that of with odd number of carbon atoms acid immediately below and above it in the series.

Statement II :  The solubility of monocarboxylic acids in water decreases with increases in molar mass.

Choose the most appropriate options

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Q:  

Which of the following is an example of conjugated diketone?

 

Q:  

The major product of the above reactions is:

Q:  

Which of the following is an example of polyester?

Q:  

A polysaccharide ‘X’ on boiling with dil H2SO4 ate 393 K under 2-3 atm pressure yields ‘Y’. ‘Y’ on treatment with bromine water give gluconic acid. ‘X’ contains b-glycosidic linkages only. Compound ‘X’ is:

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Q:  

Which of the following is not a broad spectrum antibiotic?

Q:  

During the qualitative analysis of salt with cation y2+, addition of a reagent (X) to alkaline solution of the salt gives a bright red precipitate. The reagent (X) and the cation (y2+) present represent respectively are:

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Q:  

Atoms of element X from hcp lattice and those of element Y occupy  of its tetrahedral voids. The percentage of element X in the lattice is ________. (Nearest integer)

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Q:  

2O3(g) ? 3O2(g)

At 300 K, ozone is fifty percent dissociated. The standard free energy change at this temperature and 1 atm pressure is (-)________. J mol?1. (Nearest integer)

[Given: In 1.35 = 0.3 and R=8.3 J K-1 mol-1]

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Q:  

The osmotic pressure of blood is 7.47 bar at 300K. To inject glucose to a patient intravenously, it has to isotonic with blood. The concentration of glucose solution in gL-1 is __________.

(Molar mass of glucose = 180 g mol-1 R = 0.083 L bar K-1 mol-1) Nearest integer)

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Q:  

The cell potential for the following cell

P t | H 2 ( g ) | H + ( a q ) | | C u 2 + ( 0 . 0 1 M ) | C u ( s )

Is 0.576 V at 298 K. The pH of the solution is __________. (Nearest integer)

(Given : E C u 2 + / C u 0 = 0 . 3 4 V a n d 2 . 3 0 3 R T F = 0 . 0 6 V )

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Q:  

The rate constants for decomposition of acetaldehyde have been measured over the temperature range 700 – 1000 K. The data has been analysed by plotting ln k vs 1 0 3 T graph. The value of activation energy for the reaction is ___________ kJ mol-1.

(Nearest integer)

(Given : R = 8.31 J K-1 mol-1)

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Q:  

The difference in oxidation state of chrominum in chromate and dichromate salts is _________.

Q:  

In the cobalt-carbonyl complex : [Co2(CO)8], number of Co-Co bonds is “X” and terminal CO lignads is “Y”. X + Y = __________.

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Q:  

A 0.166 g sample of an organic compound was digested with conc. H2SO4 and then distilled with NaOH. The ammonia gas evolved was passed through 50.0 mL of 0.5 N H2SO4. The used acid required 30.0 mL of 0.25 N NaOH for complete neutralization. The mass percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound is ___________.

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Q:  

Number of electrophilic centres in the given compounds is _________.

Q:  

The major product ‘A’ of the following given reaction has _________ sp2 hybridized carbon atoms.

2, 7-Dimethyl 1-2-6- octadiene  A

Major Product

 

 

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Chemistry NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12th Chapter Five Exam

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