Chemistry NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12th Chapter Five: Overview, Questions, Preparation

Chemistry NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12th Chapter Five 2025 ( Chemistry NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12th Chapter Five )

Payal Gupta
Updated on Jul 22, 2025 15:15 IST

By Payal Gupta, Retainer

Table of contents
  • Surface Chemistry Questions and Answers
  • JEE Mains 2022
  • JEE Mains Solutions 2022,29th june , Chemistry , first shift
  • JEE Mains 2022
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Chemistry NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12th Chapter Five Logo

Surface Chemistry Questions and Answers

1. What is the role of adsorption in heterogenous catalysis?

This is a Long Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: In heterogeneous catalysis reactants are generally in gas phase and catalyst are in solid phase. The activity of a catalyst depends upon the strength of chemisorption to a large extent. The reactants must get adsorbed reasonably strongly on to the catalyst to become active. However, they must not get adsorbed so strongly that they are immobilized and other reactants are left with no space on the catalyst’s surface for adsorption. It has been found that for hydrogenation reaction, the catalytic activity increases from Group 5 to Group 11 metals with maximum activity being shown by groups 7-9 elements of the periodic table. Catalyst also directs a reaction to yield a particular product. For example, starting with H2 and CO, and using different catalysts, we get different products.

2. What are the applications of adsorption in chemical analysis?

This is a Long Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans:  (i) Separation of inert gases: Due to a difference in the degree of adsorption of gases by charcoal, a mixture of noble gases can be separated by adsorption on coconut, a charcoal at different temperatures.

(ii) Adsorption indicators: Surfaces of certain precipitates such as silver halides have the property of adsorbing some dyes like eosin, fluorescein, and so produce a characteristic colour at end point.

(iii) Chromatographic analysis: It is based on the phenomenon of adsorption and has a number of applications in analytical and industrial fields.

3. What is the role of adsorption in froth floatation process used especially for concentration of sulphide ores?

This is a Long Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: This method is used for removing gangue from sulphide ores. In this, a suspension of powdered ore is made with water. To which both the collectors and froth stabilisers are added. Collectors for example pine oils, fatty acids, xanthates enhance non-wettability of the mineral particles and froth stabilisers such as cresols, aniline stabilise the froth.

4. What do you understand by shape selective catalysis? Why are zeolites good shape selective catalysts?

This is a Long Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Catalytic reaction which depends on the pore structure of catalyst and size of the reactant, product molecules is known as shape-selective catalysis. Zeolites are considered as good shape-selective catalysts due to their honeycomb-like structures. They are aluminosilicates with three-dimensional network of silicates wherein some of the silicon atoms are replaced by aluminium atoms giving Al-O-Si frame work. The reactions taking place in zeolites depends upon size and shape of reactant and product molecules, the pores and cavities of the zeolites also. They are found in nature and synthesised for catalysts selectivity. Zeolites are widely used as catalysts in petrochemical industries for cracking of hydrocarbons and isomerisation.

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Commonly asked questions
Q:  

Why are some medicines more effective in the colloidal form?

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Medicines are more effective in the colloidal form because of large surface area and are easily assimilated in this form.

Q:  

How will you distinguish between dispersed phase and dispersion medium in an emulsion? 

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: On adding dispersion medium, emulsions can be diluted to any extent. The dispersed phase forms a separate layer if added in excess.

Q:  

Why is desorption important for a substance to act as good catalyst? 

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: After the reaction is over between adsorbed reactants, the process of desorption is important to remove products and further create space for the other reactant molecules to approach the surface and react.

Q:  

What is the role of diffusion in heterogenous catalysis? 

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: The gaseous molecules diffuse on to the surface of the solid catalyst and get adsorbed. After the required chemical changes the products diffuse away from the surface of the catalyst leaving the surface free for more reactant molecules to get adsorbed and undergo reaction.

Q:  

How does a solid catalyst enhance the rate of combination of gaseous molecules?

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: When gaseous molecules come in contact with the surface of a solid catalyst, a weak chemical combination takes place between the surface of the catalyst and the gaseous molecules, which increases the concentration of reactants on the surface. Different molecules adsorbed side by side have better chance to react and form new molecules. This enhances the rate of reaction. Also, adsorption is an exothermic process. The heat released in the process of adsorption is utilised in enhancing the reaction rate.

Q:  

Do the vital functions of the body such as digestion get affected during fever? Explain your answer.

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: The rate of an enzyme reaction is maximum at a definite temperature, called the optimum temperature. On either side of the optimum temperature, the enzyme activity decreases. The optimum temperature range for enzymatic activity is 298-310 K. Human body temperature being 310 K is suited for enzyme-catalysed reactions. Therefore, during fever, catalytic activity of the enzyme may get affected.

Q:  

Which of the following process does not occur at the interface of phases?

(i) Crystallisation

(ii) Heterogeneous catalysis

(iii) Homogeneous catalysis

(iv) Corrosion

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (iii)

In homogeneous catalysis, the reactant as well as the product both are in same phase and composition is uniform throughout hence the correct option is (iii).

Q:  

At the equilibrium position in the process of adsorption  ?

(i) ΔH > 0

(ii) ΔH = TΔS

(iii)  ΔH > TΔS

(iv)  ΔH < TΔS

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (iv)

In equilibrium ΔG=0 so ΔG=ΔH-TΔS which means ΔH=TΔS therefore the correct option is (ii).

Q:  

Which of the following interface cannot be obtained?

(i) Liquid-liquid

(ii) Solid-liquid

(iii)  Liquid-gas

(iv)  Gas-gas.

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (iv) 

As gas-gas forms up a homogeneous composition, so the correct option is (iv).

Q:  

The term ‘sorption’ stands for .

(i) Absorption

(ii) Adsorption

(iii)  Both absorption and adsorption

(iv)  Desorption

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (iii)

When both adsorption and absorption occur simultaneously it is known as sorption; hence the correct option is (iii).

Q:  

Extent of physisorption of a gas increases with  

(i) Increase in temperature.

(ii) Decrease in temperature.

(iii) Decrease in surface area of adsorbent.

(iv) Decrease in strength of van der waals forces

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (ii)

As the process of adsorption is an exothermic one; physical adsorption occurs readily at low temperature and decreases with an increase in the temperature as equilibrium shifts in the backward direction. This is known as Le-Chatelier's principle, hence the correct option is (ii).

Q:  

Extent of adsorption of adsorbate from solution phase increases with

(i) Increase in amount of adsorbate in solution.

(ii) Decrease in surface area of adsorbent.

(iii)  Increase in temperature of solution.

(iv)  Decrease in amount of adsorbate in solution.

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (i)

Extent of adsorption depends on the concentration of the solute in a solution. The concentration of adsorbate increases the interaction between adsorbate and adsorbent thus the extent of adsorption also increases; hence the correct option is (i).

Q:  

Which one of the following is not applicable to the phenomenon of adsorption?

(i) ΔH > 0

(ii) ΔG < 0

(iii)  ΔS < 0

(iv) ΔH < 0

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans:  Correct option is (i)

As adsorption is an exothermic process so? H cannot be greater than zero, hence the correct option is (i).

Q:  

Which of the following is not a favourable condition for physical adsorption?

(i) High pressure

(ii) Negative δh

(iii)  Higher critical temperature of adsorbate

(iv)  High temperature

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (i)

High temperature is not favourable for physical adsorption since it is an exothermic process, hence the correct option is (i).

Q:  

Physical adsorption of a gaseous species may change to chemical adsorption with

(i) Decrease in temperature

(ii) Increase in temperature

(iii)  Increase in surface area of adsorbent

(iv)  Decrease in surface area of adsorbent.

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (ii)

On increasing the temperature activation energy of the adsorbate molecule increases which convert physical adsorption into chemisorptions hence the correct option is (ii).

Q:  

In physisorption adsorbent does not show specificity for any particular gas because

(i) Involved van der Waals forces are universal.

(ii) Gases involved behave like ideal gases.

(iii)  Enthalpy of adsorption is low.

(iv)  It is a reversible process.

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (i)

Physisorption adsorbent does not show specificity for any particular gas because it is involved van there Waals forces are universal, hence the correct option is (i).

Q:  

Which of the following is an example of absorption?

(i) Water on silica gel

(ii) Water on calcium chloride

(iii) Hydrogen on finely divided nickel

(iv) Oxygen on metal surface

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (iii)

In absorption, a substance is uniformly distributed, through the body of the solid or liquid, hence the correct option is (iii).

Q:  

On the basis of data given below predict which of the following gases shows least adsorption on a definite amount of charcoal?

Gas

CO2

SO2

CH4

H2

Critical temp./K

304

630

190

33

(i) CO2

(ii) SO2

(iii) CH4

(iv) H2 

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (iv)

Lesser the value of critical temperature of gases, the lesser will be the force of attraction among molecules and least will be the adsorption hence the answer is option (iv).

Q:  

In which of the following reactions heterogenous catalysis is involved? 

(a) 2SO2( g)+O2( g)+NO(g)→2SO3( g)

(b) 2SO2( g)+Pt(s)→2SO3( g)

(c) N2( g)+3H2( g)+Fe(s)→2NH3( g)

(d) CH3COOCH3(�)+H2O(�)+���(�)→CH3COOH(��)+CH3OH(��)

(i) (b), (c)

(ii) (b), (c), (d)

(iii) (a), (b), (c)

(iv) (d)

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (i)

When the reactant and catalyst are in different phase it is known as heterogeneous catalysis hence the answer is (i).

Q:  

At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as 

(i) Molecular colloid

(ii) Associated colloid

(iii) Macromolecular colloid

(iv) Lyophilic colloid

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar 

Ans: Correct option is (ii)

There are few substances which at low concentrations behave as normal strong electrolytes, but at higher concentrations exhibit colloidal behavior due to the formation of aggregates. The aggregated particles formed are called micelles. These are also known as associated colloids hence the answer is (ii).

Q:  

Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?

(i) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration.

(ii) Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration.

(iii)  Aqueous solution of sodium chloride.

(iv)  Aqueous solution of sugar.

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (ii).

Tyndall effect is defined as the optical property shown by colloidal particle. Above the critical micelle concentration, a solution of soap behaves as an associated colloid so it shows Tyndall effect hence the answer is (ii).

Q:  

Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected.

(i) By addition of oppositely charged sol.

(ii) By addition of an electrolyte.

(iii) By addition of lyophilic sol.

(iv) By boiling.

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (iii).

Lyophilic colloids have unique property of protecting lyophobic colloids. When a lyophilic sol is added to lyophobic solution, the lyophilic particles form a layer around the lyophobic particles and protect the latter from electrolytes. Lyophilic colloids used for this purpose are called protective colloids hence the answer is (iii).

Q:  

Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by _________.

(i) Coagulation

(ii) Electrolysis

(iii) Diffusion

(iv) Peptisation

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (iv)

Peptisation is the process in which freshly prepared precipitate can be converted into colloidal solution so the answer is (iv).

Q:  

Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag+ sol?

(i) Na2

(ii) Na3PO4

(iii) Na2SO4

(iv) NaCl

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (ii)

The rate of coagulation will be faster if the value of oppositely charge electrolyte is high hence the answer is (ii).

Q:  

A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion medium is classified as .

(i) Solid sol

(ii) Gel

(iii) Emulsion

(iv)  Sol

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (iv).

Solid and liquid together forms up sol. In this case, solid is dispersed phase and liquid is the dispersion medium hence the answer is (iv).

Q:  

The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison to those shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles  .

(i) Exhibit enormous surface area.

(ii) Remain suspended in the dispersion medium.

(iii)  Form lyophilic colloids.

(iv)  Are comparatively less in number.

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (iv).

Colloidal particles are bigger aggregate than the number of particles in a colloidal solution hence, the values of

colligative are of small order as compared to values shown by true solutions at same concentration so the answer is (iv).

Q:  

Arrange the following diagrams in correct sequence of steps involved in the mechanism of catalysis, in accordance with modern adsorption theory

(i) a →b →c →d →e

(ii) a →c →b →d →e

(iii) a →c →b →e →d

(iv) a →b →c →e →d

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct answer is (ii)

The correct sequence of steps involved in catalysis are:

(i) Adsorption of A and B on surface

(ii) Interaction between A and B to form intermediate

(iii) Starting of desorption from surface

(iv) Complete desorption from the surface

Therefore, the correct answer is (ii)

Q:  

Which of the following process is responsible for the formation of delta at a place where rivers meet the sea?

(i) Emulsification

(ii) Colloid formation

(iii) Coagulation

(iv) Peptisation

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is iii.

River water is a colloidal solution of clay. Sea water contains a number of electrolytes. When river water meets the sea water, the electrolytes present in sea water coagulate the colloidal solution of clay resulting in its deposition with the formation of delta hence the answeris (iii).

Q:  

Which of the following process is not responsible for the presence of electric charge on the sol particles?

(i) Electron capture by sol particles.

(ii) Adsorption of ionic species from solution.

(iii) Formation of Helmholtz electrical double layer.

(iv) Absorption of ionic species from solution.

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct answer is (iv)

Charge on the sol particles can be a result of the following:

Due to electron capture by sol particles during electrodispersion of metals,

Due to preferential adsorption of ions from solution and/or

Due to formulation of electrical double layer.

Hence the correct answer is (iv)

Q:  

Which of the following phenomenon is applicable to the process shown in the Fig. 5.1?

(i) Absorption

(ii) Adsorption

(iii) Coagulation

(iv) Emulsification

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Correct option is (ii)

In the figure adsorption of coloured particle from charcoal is shown. Solution of raw sugar is filtered by animal charcoal

and yellowish brown colour of raw sugar is adsorbed and filterate is colourless which gives white colour on crystallization

hence the answer is (ii).

Q:  

Which of the following options are correct?

(i) Micelle formation by soap in aqueous solution is possible at all temperatures.

(ii) Micelle formation by soap in aqueous solution occurs above a particular concentration.

(iii) On dilution of soap solution micelles may revert to individual ions.

(iv) Soap solution behaves as a normal strong electrolyte at all concentrations.

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: (ii) and (iii)

The formation of micelles takes place only above a particular temperature which is the Kraft temperature (Tk ) and above a particular concentration i.e., the critical micelle concentration (CMC). Upon dilution, these colloids revert back to the individual ions hence the answer is (ii) and (iii).

Q:  

Which of the following statements are correct about solid catalyst?

(i) Same reactants may give different product by using different catalysts.

(ii) Catalyst does not change ΔH of reaction.

(iii) Catalyst is required in large quantities to catalyse reactions.

(iv) Catalytic activity of a solid catalyst does not depend upon the strength of chemisorption.

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: (i) and (ii)

The action of a catalyst is selective in nature and so a substance which acts as a catalyst in one reaction may fail to catalyse another reaction. They also do not change the enthalpy of reaction hence the answer is (i) and (ii).

Q:  

Freundlich adsorption isotherm is given by the expression x/m= kp1/x which of the following conclusion can be drawn from this expression.

(i) When 1/n= 0, the adsorption is independent of pressure.

(ii) When 1/n= 0, the adsorption is directly proportional to pressure.

(iii) When n= 0, x/m vs p graph is a line parallel to x-axis.

(iv) When n= 0, plot of x/m vs p is a curve.

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: (i) and (iii)

Freundlich gave an empirical relationship between the quantity of gas adsorbed by unit mass of solid adsorbed and pressure at a particular temperature.

x p =kp 1 n

If 1 n  = 0 ; x m  = k xtent of adsorption is independent of pressure

When n=0 ; x m  = kp

x m  vs p is a line

parallel to x-axis

Q:  

H2 gas is adsorbed on activated charcoal to a very little extent in comparison to easily liquefiable gases due to ____________.

(i) Very strong van der Waal’s interaction.

(ii) Very weak van der Waals forces.

(iii) Very low critical temperature.

(iv) Very high critical temperature.

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans:   (ii) and (iii)

H2 molecule on an activated charcoal is adsorbed to a very little extent in comparison to easily liquefiable gases because it has (a) Very weak van there Waals force of attraction (b) Very low critical temperature hence the answer is (ii) and (iii).

Q:  

Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) Mixing two oppositely charged sols neutralises their charges and stabilises the colloid.

(ii) Presence of equal and similar charges on colloidal particles provides stability to the colloids.

(iii) Any amount of dispersed liquid can be added to emulsion without destabilising it.

(iv) Brownian movement stabilises sols.

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans:  (ii) and (iv)

The presence of equal and similar charges on colloidal particles is largely responsible in providing stability to the colloidal

solution, because the repulsive forces between charged particles having same charge prevent them from coalescing or

aggregating when they come closer to one another. The Brownian movement has stirring effect which does not permit the particles to settle and thus, is responsible for the stability of sols hence the answer is (ii) and (iv).

Q:  

An emulsion cannot be broken by __________ and ___________.

(i) Heating

(ii) Adding more amount of dispersion medium

(iii) Freezing

(iv) Adding emulsifying agent

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: (ii) and (iv)

Emulsions can be broken into constituent liquids by heating, freezing and centrifuging hence the answer is (ii) and (iv).

Q:  

Which  of the  following substances will  precipitate  the  negatively  charged emulsions?

(i) KCl           

(ii) Glucose                 

(iii)  Urea               

(iv)  NaCl

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: (i) and  (iv)

Negatively charged emulsion can  be  precipitated by oppositely  charged electrolyte. Na+ and K+ from the  electrolyte can  neutralize  the  negatively  charge  emulsion and  precipitate  the  colloid so the answers are (i) and  (iv).

Q:  

Which  of the  following colloids  cannot  be  coagulated easily?

(i) Lyophobic colloids.

(ii) Irreversible colloids.

(iii) Reversible  colloids.

(iv) Lyophilic colloids.

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans:  (iii)  and  (iv)

Sols  directly  formed  by mixing substances  like  gum, gelatin,   starch, rubber, etc., with a  suitable liquid (the  dispersion 

medium) are  called lyophilic sols. They are  also known as  reversible colloid.  These sols  are  very stable  and cannot

coagulate easily hence the answers are (iii)  and  (iv).

Q:  

What happens when a lyophilic sol is added to a lyophobic sol?

(i) Lyophobic sol is protected.

(ii) Lyophilic sol is protected.

(iii) Film of lyophilic sol is  formed  over  lyophobic sol.

(iv) Film of lyophobic sol is formed  over  lyophilic 

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans:  (i) and  (iii)

Lyophilic colloids have a unique property of protecting lyophobic colloids. When a lyophilic sol is added to the lyophobicm sol, the lyophilic particles form a layer around lyophobic particles and thus protect the latter from electrolytes. Lyophilic colloids used for this purpose are called protective colloid so the answers are (i) and  (iii).

Q:  

Which phenomenon occurs when an electric field is applied to a colloidal solution and electrophoresis is prevented? 

(i) Reverse osmosis takes place. 

(ii) Electroosmosis takes place. 

(iii) Dispersion medium begins to move.

(iv) Dispersion medium becomes stationary. 

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans:  (ii) and (iii).

When electrophoresis, i.e, movement of particles is prevented by some suitable means, it is observed that the dispersion medium begins to move in an electric field. This phenomenon is termed electroosmosis so the answers are (ii) and (iii).

Q:  

In a reaction, catalyst changes ____________.

(i) Physically

(ii) Qualitatively

(iii) Chemically

(iv) Quantitatively

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans:  (i) and (ii)

Substances which accelerate the rate of a chemical reaction and themselves remain chemically and quantitatively unchanged after the reaction, are known as catalysts they can undergo physical change so the answers are (i) and (ii).

Q:  

Which of the following phenomenon occurs when a chalk stick is dipped in ink?

(i) Adsorption of coloured substance

(ii) Adsorption of solvent

(iii) Absorption and adsorption both of solvent

(iv) Absorption of solvent

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A: 

This is a Multiple Choice Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: (i) and (iv)

When a chalk stick is dipped in ink, the surface retains the colour of the ink due to adsorption of coloured molecules

while the solvent of the ink goes deeper into the stick due to absorption so the answers are (i) and (iv).

Q:  

Method of information of solution is given in Column I. Match it with the type of solution given in Column II

Column I

Column II

(i) Sulphur vapours passed through cold water

(a) Normal electrolyte solution

(ii) Soap mixed with water above critical micelle concentration

(b) Molecular colloids

(iii) White of egg whipped with water

(c) Associated colloid

(iv) Soap mixed with water below critical micelle concentration

(d) Macro molecular colloids

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A: 

This is a Matching Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans : (i)- (b); (ii)- (c); (iii)- (d); (iv)- (a)

Q:  

Match the statement given in Column I with the phenomenon given in Column II.

Column I

Column II

(i) Dispersion medium moves in an electric field

(a) Osmosis

(ii) Solvent molecules pass through semi permeable membrane towards solvent side

(b) Electrophoresis

(iii) Movement of charged colloidal particles under the influence of applied electric potential towards oppositely charged electrodes

(c) Electroosmosis

(iv) Solvent molecules pass through semi permeable membranes towards solution side

(d) Reverse osmosis

A: 

This is a Matching Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: (i)- (c); (ii)- (d); (iii)- (b); (iv)- (a)

Q:  

Match the items given in Column I and Column II.

Column I

Column II

(i) Protective colloid

(a) FeCl3 + NaOH

(ii) Liquid - liquid colloid

(b) Lyophilic colloids

(iii) Positively charged colloid

(c) Emulsion

(iv) Negatively charged colloid

(d) FeCl3 + hot water

A: 

This is a Matching Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: (i)- (b); (ii)- (c); (iii)- (d); (iv)- (a)

Q:  

Match the types of colloidal systems given in Column I with the name given in Column II.

Column I

Column II

(i) Solid in liquid

(a) Foam

(ii) Liquid in solid

(b) Sol

(iii) Liquid in liquid

(c) Gel

(iv) Gas in liquid

(d) Emulsion

A: 

This is a Matching Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: (i) - (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (a)

S.No.

Dispersed Phase

Dispersion medium

Colloid

(i)

Solid

Liquid

(b) Sol

(ii)

Liquid

Solid

(c) Gel

(iii)

Liquid

Liquid

(d) Emulsion

(iv)

Gas

Liquid

(a) Foam

Q:  

Match the items of Column I and Column II.

Column I

Column II

(i) Dialysis

(a) Cleansing action of soap

(ii) Peptisation

(b) Coagulation

(iii) Emulsification

(c) Colloidal sol formation

(iv) Electrophoresis

(d) Purification

A: 

This is a Matching Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: (i)- (d); (ii)- (c); (iii)- (a); (iv)- (b)

Q:  

Match the items of Column I and Column II.

Column I

Column II

(i) Butter

(a) dispersion of liquid in liquid

(ii) Pumice stone

(b) dispersion of solid in liquid

(iii) Milk

(c) dispersion of gas in solid

(iv) Paints

(d) dispersion of liquid in solid

A: 

This is a Matching Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: The answers are: (i)- (d) (ii)- (c) (iii)- (a) (iv)- (b)

Dispersed Phase

Dispersion medium

Example colloid solution

Solid

Liquid

Butter

Gas

Solid

Pumice stone

Liquid

Liquid

Milk

Solid

Liquid

Paint

Q:  

In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.

(i) Assertion and reason both are correct and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.

(ii) Assertion and reason both are correct but reason does not explain assertion.

(iii) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.

(iv) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

(v)  Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

1. Assertion: An ordinary filter paper impregnated with collodion solution stops the flow of colloidal particles.

Reason: Pore size of the filter paper becomes more than the size of colloidal particle.

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A: 

This is a Assertion and Reason Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Colloidal particles can pass through ordinary filter paper because the pores are too large. However, the pores of filter paper can be reduced in size by impregnating with collodion solution to stop the flow of colloidal particles hence the answer is (iii).

Q:  

Assertion: Colloidal solutions show colligative properties.

Reason: Colloidal particles are large in size. 

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A: 

This is a Assertion and Reason Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Colloidal particles being bigger aggregates, the number of particles in a colloidal solution is comparatively small as compared to a true solution. Hence, the values of colligative properties (osmotic pressure, lowering in vapour pressure, depression in freezing point and elevation in boiling point) are of small order as compared to values shown by true solutions at same concentration hence the answer is (i).

Q:  

Assertion: Colloidal solutions do not show brownian motion.

Reason: Brownian motion is responsible for stability of sols.

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A: 

This is a Assertion and Reason Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Colloidal particle shows Brownian movement. The Brownian movement has a stirring effect which does not permit the particles to settle and thus, is responsible for the stability of sols so the answer is (v).

Q:  

Assertion: Coagulation power of Al3+ is more than Na+.

Reason: Greater the valency of the flocculating ion added, greater is its power to cause precipitation (Hardy Schulze rule).

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A: 

This is a Assertion and Reason Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Greater the valence of the flocculating ion added, the greater is its power to cause precipitation. This is known as Hardy schulze rule. In the coagulation of a negative sol, the flocculating

Q:  

Assertion: Detergents with low CMC are more economical to use

Reason: Cleansing action of detergents involves the formation of micelles. These are formed when the concentration of detergents becomes equal to CMC.

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A: 

This is a Assertion and Reason Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Detergents with low CMC are more economical to use as they involve formation of micelle which is used for cleaning of oil and dirt from our cloth. Micelle formation takes place when the concentration of the detergent becomes equal to the CMC so the answer is (i).

Q:  

What is the role of adsorption in heterogenous catalysis?

A: 

This is a Long Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: In heterogeneous catalysis reactants are generally in gas phase and catalyst are in solid phase. The activity of a catalyst depends upon the strength of chemisorption to a large extent. The reactants must get adsorbed reasonably strongly on to the catalyst to become active. However, they must not get adsorbed so strongly that they are immobilized and other reactants are left with no space on the catalyst's surface for adsorption. It has been found that for hydrogenation reaction, the catalytic activity increases from Group 5 to Group 11 metals with maximum activity being shown by groups 7-9 elements of the periodic table. Catalyst also directs a reaction to yield a particular product. For example, starting with H2 and CO, and using different catalysts, we get different products.

Q:  

What are the applications of adsorption in chemical analysis?

A: 

This is a Long Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans:  (i) Separation of inert gases: Due to a difference in the degree of adsorption of gases by charcoal, a mixture of noble gases can be separated by adsorption on coconut, a charcoal at different temperatures.

(ii) Adsorption indicators: Surfaces of certain precipitates such as silver halides have the property of adsorbing some dyes like eosin, fluorescein, and so produce a characteristic colour at end point.

(iii) Chromatographic analysis: It is based on the phenomenon of adsorption and has a number of applications in analytical and industrial fields.

Q:  

What is the role of adsorption in froth floatation process used especially for concentration of sulphide ores?

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A: 

This is a Long Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: This method is used for removing gangue from sulphide ores. In this, a suspension of powdered ore is made with water. To which both the collectors and froth stabilisers are added. Collectors for example pine oils, fatty acids, xanthates enhance non-wettability of the mineral particles and froth stabilisers such as cresols, aniline stabilise the froth.

Q:  

What do you understand by shape selective catalysis? Why are zeolites good shape selective catalysts?

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A: 

This is a Long Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Catalytic reaction which depends on the pore structure of catalyst and size of the reactant, product molecules is known as shape-selective catalysis. Zeolites are considered as good shape-selective catalysts due to their honeycomb-like structures. They are aluminosilicates with three-dimensional network of silicates wherein some of the silicon atoms are replaced by aluminium atoms giving Al-O-Si frame work. The reactions taking place in zeolites depends upon size and shape of reactant and product molecules, the pores and cavities of the zeolites also. They are found in nature and synthesised for catalysts selectivity. Zeolites are widely used as catalysts in petrochemical industries for cracking of hydrocarbons and isomerisation.

Q:  

Why is it important to have clean surface in surface studies?

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: It is important to have clean surface as it facilitates the adsorption of desired species.

Q:  

Why is chemisorption referred to as activated adsorption? 

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Chemisorption involves formation of bond between gaseous molecules/atoms and the solid surface for which high activation energy is required. Thus it is referred to as activated adsorption.

Q:  

What type of solutions are formed on dissolving different concentrations of soap in water?

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: At lower concentration soap forms a normal electrolytic solution with water. After a certain concentration called critical micelle concentration, colloidal solution is formed.

Q:  

What happens when gelatin is mixed with gold sol?

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Gold sol is a lyophobic sol. Addition of gelatin stabilises the gold sol.

Q:  

How does it become possible to cause artificial rain by spraying silver iodide on the clouds?

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Clouds are colloidal in nature and carry charge. Spray of silver iodide, an electrolyte, results in coagulation leading to rain.

Q:  

Gelatin which is a peptide is added in ice creams. What can be its role?

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Ice creams are emulsions which get stabilised by emulsifying agents like gelatin.

Q:  

What is collodion?                       

Read more
A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: It is a 4% solution of nitrocellulose in a mixture of alcohol and ether.

Q:  

Why do we add alum to purify water

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: The colloidal impurities present in water get coagulated by added alum, thus making water potable.

Q:  

What happens when electric field is applied to colloidal solution?

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: The charged colloidal particles start moving towards oppositely charged electrodes.

Q:  

What causes brownian motion in colloidal dispersion? 

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Unbalanced bombardment of the particles of dispersed phase by molecules of dispersion medium causes brownian motion. This stabilises the sol.

Q:  

A colloid is formed by adding FeCl3 in excess of hot water. What will happen if excess sodium chloride is added to this colloid?

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A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Positively charged sol of hydrated ferric oxide is formed and on adding excess of NaCl, negatively charged chloride ions coagulate the positively charged sol of hydrated ferric oxide.

Q:  

How do emulsifying agents stabilise the emulsion?

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: The emulsifying agent forms an interfacial layer between suspended particles and the dispersion medium thereby stabilising the emulsion.

Q:  

Why does leather get hardened after tanning?

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Animal hide is colloidal in nature and has positively charged particles. When it is soaked in tannin which has negatively charged colloidal particles, it results in mutual coagulation taking place.

Q:  

How does the precipitation of colloidal smoke take place in Cottrell precipitator?

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: In Cottrell precipitator, charged smoke particles are passed through a chamber containing plates with charge opposite to the smoke particles. Smoke particles lose their charge on the plates and get precipitated.

Q:  

On the basis of Hardy-Schulze rule explain why the coagulating power of phosphate is higher than chloride.

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A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Minimum quantity of an electrolyte required to cause precipitation of a sol is called its coagulating value. Greater the charge on flocculating ion and smaller is the amount of electrolyte required for precipitation, higher is the coagulating power of coagulating ion (Hardy-Schulze rule).

Q:  

Why does bleeding stop by rubbing moist alum? 

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Moist alum coagulates the blood and so formed blood clot stops bleeding.

Q:  

Why is Fe(OH)3 colloid positively charged, when prepared by adding FeCl3 to hot water?

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: The adsorption of positively charged Fe3+ ions by the sol of hydrated ferric oxide results in positively charged colloid.

Q:  

Why dophysisorption and chemisorption behave differently with rise in temperature?

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Physisorption involves weak van there Waals forces which weaken with rise in temperature. The chemisorptions involves formation of chemical bond involving activation energy and like any other chemical reaction is favoured by rise in temperature.

Q:  

What happens when dialysis is prolonged?

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Due to excessive dialysis, traces of electrolyte which stabilises the colloids is removed completely, making the colloid unstable. As a result, coagulation takes place.

Q:  

Why does the white precipitate of silver halide become coloured in the presence of dye eosin. 

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Eosin is adsorbed on the surface of silver halide precipitate making it coloured.

Q:  

What is the role of activated charcoal in gas mask used in coal mines?

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: Activated charcoal acts as an adsorbent for various poisonous gases present in the coal mines.

Q:  

How does a delta form at the meeting place of sea and river?

A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: River water is a colloidal solution of clay and sea water contains lot of electrolytes. The point at which river and sea meet is the site for coagulation. Deposition of coagulated clay results in delta formation.

Q:  

Give an example where physisorption changes to chemisorption with rise in temperature. Explain the reason for change.

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A: 

This is a Short Answers Type Questions as classified in NCERT Exemplar

Ans: The process of physisorption for example that of H2 on finely divided nickel, involves weak van there Waals' forces. With increase in temperature, hydrogen molecules dissociate into hydrogen atoms which are held on the surface by chemisorption.

Chemistry NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12th Chapter Five Logo

JEE Mains 2022

JEE Mains 2022

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Commonly asked questions
Q:  

Geraniol, a volatile organic compound, is a component of rose oil. The density of the vapour is 0.46 gL-1 at 257°C and 100 mm Hg. The molar mass of geraniol is___________ g mol-1 (Nearest Integer).

[Given R = 0.082 L atm K-1 mol-1]

Read more
A: 

Assuming ideal behaviour,  P=dRTM

P=100760atm, T=257+273=530K

d = 0.46gm/L

M=0.46×0.082×530100×760=151.93152g/mol

Q:  

17.0g of NH3 completely vapourises at -33.42°C and 1 bar pressure and the enthalpy change the process is 23.4 kJ mol-1. The enthalpy change for the vapourisation of 85g of NH3 under the same conditions is_____ kJ.

Read more
A: 

85gm NH3 = 5 moles of NH3

Enthalpy change for 1 mol = 23.4 kJ

Then enthalpy change for 5 mol = 23.4 * 5 = 117 kJ

Q:  

1.2 mL of acetic acid is dissolved in water to make 2.0L of solution. The depression in freezing point observed for this strength of acid is 0.0198°C. The percentage of dissociation of the acid is_____________. (Nearest Integer).

[Given Density of acetic acid is 1.02g mL-1

Molar mass of acetic acid is 60g mol-1]

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A: 

Mass = d × v = 1.02 × 1.2 = 1.224gm

Moles of acetic acid = 0.0204 moles in 2L

So molality = 0.0102 mol/kg

Δ T f = i × K f × m

i = 1 + a for acetic acid

0.0198  = (1 + a) × 1.85 × 0.0102

α = 0.04928 = 5%

Q:  

A dilute solution of sulphuric acid is electrolyzed using a current of 0.10 A for 2 hours to produce hydrogen and oxygen gas. The total volume of gases produced at STP is __________ cm3. (Nearest Integer).

[Given: Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol-1 at STP, molar volume of an ideal gas is 22.7 L mol-1]

Read more
A: 

At anode (oxidation)

2H2O O2 (g) + 4H+ + 4e-

At cathode (Reduction)

2H+ + 2e- H2 (g)

No. of gm- equivalents = i×t96500=0.1×2×60×6096500=0.00746

VO2=0.007464×22.7=0.0423L

VH2=0.007462×22.7=0.0846L Vtotal127mL

Q:  

The activation energy of one of the reactions is a biochemical process is 532611 J mol-1 when the temperature falls from 310 K to 300 K, the change in rate constant observed is k300 = x × 10-3 k310. The value of x is___________.

[Given: In 10 = 2.3 R = 8.3 JK-1 mol-1]

Read more
A: 

 ln (K2K1)=EaR (1T11T2)

ln (K2K1)=5326118.3× (10310×300)

Where, K2 is at 310 K and K1 at 300K

ln (K2K1)=6.9=3×ln10

ln (K2K1)=ln103

K2 = K1 × 103

K1 = K2 × 10-3

 x = 1

Q:  

The number of terminal oxygen atoms present in the product B obtained from the following reaction is_____________.

FeCr2O4+Na2CO3+O2A+Fe2O3+CO2

A+H+B+H2O+Na+

Read more
A: 

Kindly consider the following figure

Q:  

An acidified magnate solution undergoes disproportionation reaction. The spin- only magnetic moment value of the product having manganese in higher oxidation state is________ B.M. (Nearest Integer)

Read more
A: 

 3MnO42+4H+2MnO4+MnO2+2H2O

No. of unpaired electron in Mn7+ = 0

μ=0B.M

Q:  

Kjeldahl’s method was used for the estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound. The ammonia evolved from 0.55g of the compound neutralized 12.5 mL of 1M H2SO4 solution. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is_________ (Nearest Integer)

Read more
A: 

Millie q. of H2SO4 used by NH3 = 12.5 × 1 × 2 = 25

So millimoles of N = 25

Moles of N = 25 × 10-3

Wt of N = 14 × 25 × 10-3

% of N =    1 4 × 2 5 × 1 0 3 0 . 5 5 × 1 0 0 = 6 3 . 6 6 6 4

Q:  

Observe structure of the following compounds

The total number of structures / compounds which possess asymmetric atoms is________.

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A: 

No. of compounds containing asymmetric carbon are

Q:  

 C6H12O6Zymase A ΔNaOlB+CHl3

The number of carbon atoms present in the product B is______________.

A: 

Kindly consider the following figure

Q:  

Production of iron in blast furnace follows the following equation

F e 3 O 4 ( s ) + 4 C O ( g ) 3 F e ( I ) + 4 C O 2 ( g )

When 4.640 kg of Fe3O4 and 2.520 kg of CO are allowed to react then the amount of iron (in g) produced is:

[Given : Molar Atomic mass (g mo-1); Fe = 56

 Molar Atomic mass (g mol-1); O = 16

Molar Atomic mass (g mol-1); C = 12]

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A: 

Moles of Fe3O4 =   4 . 6 4 * 1 0 3 2 3 2 = 2 0

              Moles of CO =   2 . 5 2 * 1 0 3 2 8 = 9 0

              So limiting reagent = Fe3O4

              So moles of Fe formed = 60

              Weight of Fe = 60 * 56 = 3360

Q:  

Which of the following statements are correct?

           (A) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d54s1.

           (B) The magnetic quantum number may a negative value.

           (C) In the ground state of an atom, the orbitals are filled in order of their increasing energies.

           (D) The total number of nodes are given by (n-2)

           Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Read more
A: 

(A) Cr = [Ar]3d54s1

              (B) m =   l t o + l

              (C) According to Aufbau principle, orbital are filled in order of their increasing energies.

              (D) Total nodes = n – 1

Q:  

Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their covalent character:

           (A) LiCl
            (B) NaCl

          (C) KCl

           (D) CsCl

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Read more
A: 

Covalent character is L i C l > N a C l > K C l > C s C l .  As the cationic size increases polarization decreases.

Q:  

The solubility of AgCl will be maximum in which of the following?

A: 

Due to common ion effect solubility of AgCl will decreases in KCl, AgCl and AgNO3 but in deionized water, no common ion effect will takes place so maximum solubility.

Q:  

Which of the following is a correct statements?

           (a) Brownian motion destabilizes sols

           (b) Any amount of dispersed phase can be added to emulsion without establishing it.

           (c) Mixing two oppositely charged sols in equal amount neutralizes charges and stabilizes colloids.

           (d) Presence of equal and similar charges on colloidal particles provides stability to the colloidal solution.

Read more
A: 

Due to equal and similar charge particle will repel each other, hence will never precipitate.

Chemistry NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12th Chapter Five Logo

JEE Mains Solutions 2022,29th june , Chemistry , first shift

JEE Mains Solutions 2022,29th june , Chemistry , first shift

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Commonly asked questions
Q:  

Production of iron in blast furnace follows the following equation

Fe3O4(s)+4CO(g)3Fe(I)+4CO2(g)

When 4.640 kg of Fe3O4 and 2.520 kg of CO are allowed to react then the amount of iron (in g) produced is:

[Given : Molar Atomic mass (g mo-1); Fe = 56

Molar Atomic mass (g mol-1); O = 16

Molar Atomic mass (g mol-1); C = 12]

Read more
A: 

Moles of Fe3O4 = 4.64×103232=20

Moles of CO = 2.52×10328=90

So limiting reagent = Fe3O4

So moles of Fe formed = 60

Weight of Fe = 60 × 56 = 3360

 

Q:  

Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d54s1.

(B) The magnetic quantum number may a negative value.

(C) In the ground state of an atom, the orbitals are filled in order of their increasing energies.

(D) The total number of nodes are given by (n-2)

Read more
A: 

(A) Cr = [Ar]3d54s1

(B) m = lto+l

(C) According to Aufbau principle, orbital are filled in order of their increasing energies.

(D) Total nodes = n – 1

Q:  

Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their covalent character:

(A) LiCl
(B) NaCl
(C) KCl
(D) CsCl

Read more
A: 

Covalent character is LiCl>NaCl>KCl>CsCl. As the cationic size increases polarization decreases.

 Covalent character decreases.

Q:  

The solubility of AgCl will be maximum in which of the following?

A: 

Due to common ion effect solubility of AgCl will decreases in KCl, AgCl and AgNO3 but in deionized water, no common ion effect will takes place so maximum solubility.

Q:  

Which of the following is a correct statements?

A: 

Due to equal and similar charge particle will repel each other, hence will never precipitate

Q:  

The electronic configuration of Pt (atomic number 78) is:

A: 

Correct electronic configuration of Pt is 78Pt = [Xe]4f145d96s1

It is an exceptional electronic configuration

Q:  

In isolation of which one of the following metals from their ores, the use of cyanide salt is not commonly involved?

Read more
A: 

KCN is used as depressant for ZnS. While Au and Ag, cyanide process (leaching) is used.

Q:  

Which one of the following reactions indicates the reducing ability of hydrogen peroxide in basic medium?

Read more
A: 

In reducing action, H2O2 changes to O2 because it will oxides but option (A) is in acidic medium, hence answer will be (C).

Q:  

Match List – I with List – II

  List – I                                                                              List – II

(Metal)                                                                            (Emitted light wavelength (nm))

(A) Li                                                                                 (I) 670.8

(B) Na                                                                               (II) 589.2

(C) Rb                                                                               (III) 780.0

(D) Cs                                                                               (IV) 455.5

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Read more
A: 

Metals                Li Na K Rb                        Cs

Colour               Crimson red Yellow                 Violet                  Red violet  Blue

Wavelength       670.8  589.2  766.5                   780  455.5

Q:  

Match the List – I with List – II

             List – I                                                                               List – II

           (Metal)                                                                            (Application)

           (A) Cs                                                                               (I) High temperature thermometer

           (B) Ga                                                                               (II) Water repellent sprays

           (C) B                                                                                  (III) Photoelectric cells

           (D) Si                                                                                 (IV) Bullet proof vest

           Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

Read more
A: 

Cs is used in devising photoelectric cells. Boron fibres are used in making bullet – proof vest silicones being surrounded by non-polar alkyl group are water repelling in nature.

Gallium is less toxic and has a very high temperature thermometers

Q:  

The oxoacid of phosphorus that is easily obtained from a reaction alkali and white phosphorus and has two P-H bonds, is:

Read more
A: 

P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O   P H 3 + 3 N a H 2 P O 2

Oxoacid is H3PO2 it is also known as hypophosphorous acid or phosphinic acid.

Q:  

The acid that is believed to be mainly responsible for the damage of Taj Mahal is

A: 

CaCO3 + H2SO4 CaSO4 + CO2 + H2O

Q:  

Two isomers ‘A’ and ‘B’ with molecular formula C4H8 give different products on oxidation with KMnO4 is acidic medium. Isomer ‘A’ on reaction with KMnO4/H+ results in effervescence of a gas and given ketone. The compound ‘A’ is

 

 

Read more
A: 

C4H8 (DOU = 1 so 1 double bond exist since it gives KMnO4 test)

 

Q:  

In the given conversion the compound A is:

 

A: 
Kindly go through the solution

 

Q:  

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The esterification of carboxylic acid with an alcohol is a nucleophilc acyl substitution.

Statement II: Electron withdrawing groups in the carboxylic acid will increase the rate of esterification reaction

Choose the most appropriate option:

Read more
A: 

It is an uncleophilic acyl substilution. While electron withdrawing group in carboxylic acid will increases the rate of esterification.

 

Q:  

The polymer, which can be stretched and retains its original status on releasing the force is

A: 

Buna – N is synthetic rubber which can be stretched and retains its original status on releasing the force.

Q:  

Sugar moiety in DNA and RNA molecules respectively are

A: 

DNA contains b-D-2- deoxyribose sugar while RNA contains b-D-ribose.

 

Q:  

Which of the following compound does not contain sulfur atom?

A: 

It is a nitrogeneous compound and it doesn't contains sulphur.

 

Q:  

Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Phenols are weakly acidic

Statement II : Therefore they are freely soluble in NaOH solution and are weaker acids than alcohols and water

Choose the most appropriate options:

Read more
A: 

Phenol is weakly acidic compound but it is more acidic than alcohol and water because its conjugate base is more stable. Hence statement -I is correct while statement -II is wrong.

Chemistry NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12th Chapter Five Logo

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JEE Mains 2022

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Commonly asked questions
Q:  

If a rocket runs on a fuel (C15H30) and liquid oxygen, the weight of oxygen required and CO2 released for every litre of fuel respectively are :                                                                                                

(Given : density of the fuel is 0.756 g/mL)

Read more
A: 

Mass of C15H30 = volume × Density

= 1000 m l  × 0.756 gm/ m l  

C15H30 + 22.5 O2   15CO2 + 15H2O

No. of moles of C15H30 = 7 5 6 2 1 0 moles

No. of moles of O2 required =   ( 2 2 . 5 × 7 5 6 2 1 0 ) m o l e s

Mass of O2 required = 22.5 ×   7 5 6 2 1 0 × 3 2 = 2 5 9 2 g m

No. of moles of CO2 liberated = 15 ×   ( 7 5 6 2 1 0 ) moles

Mass of O2 liberated =   1 5 × 7 5 6 2 1 0 × 4 4 = 2 3 7 6 g m

Q:  

Consider the following pairs of electrons

(a) n = 3 , l = 1 , m l = 1 , m s = + 1 2

(b) n = 3 , l = 2 , m l = 1 , m s = + 1 2

(a) n = 3 , l = 2 , m l = 2 , m s = 1 2

(b) n = 3 , l = 2 , m l = 1 , m s = 1 2

(a)  n = 4 , l = 2 , m l = 2 , m s = + 1 2

(b) n = 3 , l = 2 , m l = 2 , m s = + 1 2

The pairs of electrons present in degenerate orbitals is/are :

Read more
A: 

Degenerate orbitals must have same value of energy

Orbitals with same n and   values are degenerate orbitals.

Q:  

Match List – I with List – II                                                                                               (Chemical Bonding)

List – I                                          List – II

(A)  [PtCl4]2-                                 (I)   sp3d

(B)  BrF5                                       (II)  d2sp3

(C)  PCl5                                        (III) dsp2

(D)  [Co(NH3)6]3+                         (iv) sp3d2

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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A: 

[ P t C l 4 ] 2 P t has dsp2 hybridization

BrF5 -> Br has sp3d2 hybridization

PCl5 -> P has sp3d hybridization

[Co (NH3)6]3+ -> Co has d2sp3 hybridization.

Q:  

For a reaction at equilibrium                                                                                      

A ( g ) ? B ( g ) + 1 2 C ( g )

The relation between dissociation constant (K), degree of dissociation (a) and equilibrium pressure (p) is given by

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A: 

A ( g ) ? B ( g ) + 1 2 C ( g ) t = 0 a m o l e s 0 0 a α m o l e s + a α m o l e s + a α 2 m o l e s _

Eq.   a(1 - α)          aα           (aα/2)

Moles           moles       moles

Total no. of moles at equilibrium

= nA + nB + nC

= a ( 1 α ) + a α + a α 2 = a [ 1 + α 2 ]

( P A ) e q = ( x A ) e q × P e q = a ( 1 α ) ( 1 + α / 2 ) P = 1 α ( 1 + α / 2 ) P

( P B ) e q = ( x B ) e q × P e q = a α a ( 1 + α / 2 ) P = α ( 1 + α / 2 ) P

( P C ) e q = ( x C ) e q × P e q = a α / 2 a ( 1 + α / 2 ) P = α / 2 ( 1 + α / 2 ) P

K P = ( P B ) e q × ( P C ) e q 1 / 2 ( P A ) e q = ( α ) 3 / 2 P 1 / 2 ( 1 α ) ( 2 + α ) 1 / 2

Q:  

Given below are two statements :                                                       

Statement I : Emulsions of oil in water are unstable and sometimes they separate into two layers on standing.

Statement II : For stabilization of an emulsion, excess of electrolyte is added. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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A: 

Emulsions gets separated into two layers on standing.

For stabilization of emulsion. Emulsifying agents added into it but not electrolyte.

Q:  

Given below are the oxides :                                                                                                                        

Na2O, As2O3, N2O, NO and Cl2O7

Number of amphoteric oxides is :

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A: 

Acidic oxide => Cl2O7

Neutral oxide => N2O, NO

Basic oxide => Na2O

Amphoteric oxide => As2O3

Q:  

Match List – I with List – II:                                                                                                                                 

                  List – I                                   List – II

           (A)  Sphalerite                            (I)   FeCO3

           (B)  Calamine                              (II)  PbS

           (C)  Galena                                  (III) ZnCO3

           (D)  Siderite                                 (IV) ZnS

           Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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A: 

Sphalarite           ZnS

Calamine            ZnCO3

Galena                PbS

Siderite               FeCO3

Q:  

The highest industrial consumption of molecular hydrogen is to produce compounds of element :

A: 

The highest industrial consumption of hydrogen gas is in the synthesis of ammonia gas (Having use in manufacturing of N-based fertizers)

Q:  

Which of the following statements are correct?                                                                    

(A)  Both LiCl and MgCl2 are soluble in ethanol

(B)  The oxides Li2O and MgO combine with excess of oxygen to give superoxide.

(C)  LiF is less soluble in water than other alkali metal fluorides.

(D)  Li2O is more soluble in water than other alkali metal oxides.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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A: 

Due to higher extent of polarization by Li+ and Mg2+, LiCl and Mgcl2 have covalent character. Therefore they are soluble in ethanol.

Due to very high value of lattice energy, LiF is having very less solubility in water.

Q:  

Identify the correct statement from B2H6 from those given below :             

(A)  In B2H6, all B-H bonds are equivalent

(B)  In B2H6, there are four 3-centre 2- electron bonds

(C)  B2H6 is a Lewis acid

(D)  B2H6 can be synthesized from both BF3 and NaBH4.

(E)  B2H6 is planar molecule.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

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A: 

B2H6 has 4 2 c -2e bonds and 2 3c-2e bonds.

Bridging (B-H) bonds have more value of bond- length then terminal (B – H) bonds

Bridging bonds are in one plane, but terminal bonds are in perpendicular plane.

Due to presence of (3c-2e) bonds, it behaves as electrons deficient and prone to get attached by lewis base.

3 N a B H 4 + 4 B F 3 Δ 3 N a B F 4 + 2 B 2 H 6                

Q:  

The most stable trihalide of nitrogen is

A: 

NF3 is stable due to high N-F bond energy.

Other halides of nitrogen (NCl3 NBr3, Nl3) are explosive

Q:  

Which one of the following elemental forms is not present in the enamel of the teeth?

A: 

Enamel has calcium hydroxyl apatite [Ca10 (PO4)6 (OH)2], CaCO3, CaF2 and Mg3 (PO4)2

Ca2+, P5+ and F- are present

Q:  

In the given reaction sequence, the major product ‘C’ is : :           

C 8 H 1 0 H 2 S O 4 H N O 3 A Δ B r 2 B K O H a l c o h o l i c C

 

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A: 

Kindly consider the following figure

Q:  

Two statement are given below:

Statement I : The melting point of monocarboxylic acid even number of carbon atoms is higher than that of with odd number of carbon atoms acid immediately below and above it in the series.

Statement II :  The solubility of monocarboxylic acids in water decreases with increases in molar mass.

Choose the most appropriate options

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A: 

Melting point of monocarboxylic acids with even number of carbon is more than that with odd number of carbon due to lattice energy.

With increase in molar mass of monocarboxylic acids size of alkyl group (Hydrophobic portion) increases and therefore solubility in water decreases.

Q:  

Which of the following is an example of conjugated diketone?

 

A: 

Kindly consider the following figure

Q:  

The major product of the above reactions is:

A: 

Kindly consider the following figure

Q:  

Which of the following is an example of polyester?

A: 

Kindly consider the following figure

Q:  

A polysaccharide ‘X’ on boiling with dil H2SO4 ate 393 K under 2-3 atm pressure yields ‘Y’. ‘Y’ on treatment with bromine water give gluconic acid. ‘X’ contains b-glycosidic linkages only. Compound ‘X’ is:

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A: 

C e l l u l o s e H + / H 2 O β D G l u c o s e W a t e r B r 2 G l u c o n i c a c i d

Q:  

Which of the following is not a broad spectrum antibiotic?

A: 

Penicillin is not a broad spectrum artibiotic and is used to treat only certain infections caused by streptococci and staphylococci such as pneumonia.

Q:  

During the qualitative analysis of salt with cation y2+, addition of a reagent (X) to alkaline solution of the salt gives a bright red precipitate. The reagent (X) and the cation (y2+) present represent respectively are:

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A: 

N i 2 + + 2 d m g [ N i ( d m g ) 2 ] Rosy-red precipitate

Q:  

Atoms of element X from hcp lattice and those of element Y occupy  of its tetrahedral voids. The percentage of element X in the lattice is ________. (Nearest integer)

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A: 

Unit cell = Hexagonal close packing (hcp)

No. of X in one unit cell = 6

No. of tetrahedral voids in one unit cell = 12

No. of Y in one unit cell = 2 3 * 1 2 = 8

Formula => X6 Y8 => X3 Y4

% of X in unit cell = 3 7 * 1 0 0 % = 4 3 %

Q:  

2O3(g) ? 3O2(g)

At 300 K, ozone is fifty percent dissociated. The standard free energy change at this temperature and 1 atm pressure is (-)________. J mol?1. (Nearest integer)

[Given: In 1.35 = 0.3 and R=8.3 J K-1 mol-1]

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A: 

2O3(g) -> 3O2

t = 0      a moles               0

-0.5a mole     +0.75a mole

At Eq.    0.5a mole         0.75a mole

Total moles at eq = 0.5a + 0.75 a = 1.25a

P O 3 = x O 3 × P T = 0 . 5 a 1 . 2 5 a × 1 = 2 5 a t m

P O 2 = x O 2 × p T = 0 . 7 5 a 1 . 2 5 a × 1 = 3 5 a t m

K p = ( P O 2 ) e q 3 ( P O 3 ) e q 3 = ( 3 5 ) 3 ( 2 / 5 ) 2 = 1 . 3 5 a t m

Δ G ° = R T l n K P

= 8 . 3 × 3 0 0 l n 1 . 3 5 = 7 4 7 J / m o l e

               

Q:  

The osmotic pressure of blood is 7.47 bar at 300K. To inject glucose to a patient intravenously, it has to isotonic with blood. The concentration of glucose solution in gL-1 is __________.

(Molar mass of glucose = 180 g mol-1 R = 0.083 L bar K-1 mol-1) Nearest integer)

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A: 

For isotonic solution

? i n j e c t o r = ? B l o o d

? C * 0 . 0 8 2 * 3 0 0 = 7 . 4 7

? C = 0 . 3 ? ? m o l e / l

= 0 . 3 * 1 8 0 g m / l = 5 4 g m / l

Q:  

The cell potential for the following cell

P t | H 2 ( g ) | H + ( a q ) | | C u 2 + ( 0 . 0 1 M ) | C u ( s )

Is 0.576 V at 298 K. The pH of the solution is __________. (Nearest integer)

(Given : E C u 2 + / C u 0 = 0 . 3 4 V a n d 2 . 3 0 3 R T F = 0 . 0 6 V )

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A: 

Anode, H2 (g) -> 2H+ + 2e-

Cathode, Cu2+ + 2e -> Cu (s)

Net cell reaction H2 + Cu2+ -> 2H+ Cu (s)

E c e l l 0 = E C u 2 + / C u 0 E H + / H 2 0

= 0.34 V – 0

= 0.34 V

E c e l l = E c e l l 0 0 . 0 6 2 l o g [ H + ] 2 [ C u 2 + ]

0 . 5 7 6 = 0 . 3 4 0 . 0 6 2 l o g [ H + ] 2 0 . 0 1 l o g [ H + ] = 4 . 9 3 p H o f s o l u t i o n = 4 . 9 3 ~ 5

Q:  

The rate constants for decomposition of acetaldehyde have been measured over the temperature range 700 – 1000 K. The data has been analysed by plotting ln k vs 1 0 3 T graph. The value of activation energy for the reaction is ___________ kJ mol-1.

(Nearest integer)

(Given : R = 8.31 J K-1 mol-1)

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A: 

k = A . e ( E a R T )

l n k = l n A E a R T

l n k = l n A + ( E a 1 0 0 0 R ) . 1 0 0 0 T

Slope = E a 1 0 0 0 R = 1 8 . 5  

=> Ea = 18.5 × 1000 × 8.31 = 153.735 × 103 J = 154 KJ

Q:  

The difference in oxidation state of chrominum in chromate and dichromate salts is _________.

A: 

Kindly consider the following figure

Q:  

In the cobalt-carbonyl complex : [Co2(CO)8], number of Co-Co bonds is “X” and terminal CO lignads is “Y”. X + Y = __________.

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A: 

Number of Co-Co Bond = X = 1

Number of terminal ligand = Y = 6

Q:  

A 0.166 g sample of an organic compound was digested with conc. H2SO4 and then distilled with NaOH. The ammonia gas evolved was passed through 50.0 mL of 0.5 N H2SO4. The used acid required 30.0 mL of 0.25 N NaOH for complete neutralization. The mass percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound is ___________.

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A: 

Meq of NH3 = Meq of used H2SO4 = Meq of NaOH = 0.25 × 30 = 7.5

Millmoles of N = millimoles of NH3 = 7.5 (As n factor = 1)

Mass of nitrogen = 7.5 × 14 × 10-3 = 0.105 gm

% of Nitrogen = 0 . 1 0 5 0 . 1 6 6 × 1 0 0 % = 6 3 . 2 5 % ~ 6 3 %

Q:  

Number of electrophilic centres in the given compounds is _________.

A: 

Kindly consider the following figure

Q:  

The major product ‘A’ of the following given reaction has _________ sp2 hybridized carbon atoms.

2, 7-Dimethyl 1-2-6- octadiene  A

Major Product

 

 

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A: 

Number of sp2 hybridized carbon in A = 2

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Chemistry NCERT Exemplar Solutions Class 12th Chapter Five Exam

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