NEET PG 2026 Exam Analysis (Easy to Moderate): Check Get Detailed Paper Analysis & Review

Candidates can check the NEET PG exam analysis 2026 here. Based on students' reactions, the NETE PG overall exam difficulty level is easy to moderate but highly competitive. Clinical questions were tricky. There were similarities in the multiple-choice question answers. Few students were unable to manage their time. The details exam analysis is provided below: 

• The overall difficulty was easy to moderate.
• The paper pattern highly focused on clinical section.
• A good weightage of questions included image-based X-rays, CT scans, and histological slides.
• High-yield subjects included General Medicine, OBG, Pharmacology, and Pathology.
• Pre-clinical subjects like Anatomy, Physiology, and Biochemistry were comparatively easy. 
• Long-form clinical case scenarios in Phase-3 subjects were tricky to attempt. 
• Time management was tougher due to new time-bound sectional locking rules.

NEET PG Exam Analysis 2026

Parameter	Analysis
Overall Difficulty	Easy to Moderate, but highly competitive
Conceptual Level	Moderate
Clinical Questions	High
Integrated Questions	Present
INI-CET Influence	Clearly visible
Previous-Year Questions/Topics	Helpful
Next-Step Management	Frequently tested
Factual Questions	Relatively fewer
Video-Based Questions	Not reported
Time Management	Very important
Section-Wise Timing	Increased scope for overthinking
Rapid Revision/Marathons	Most useful after completing detailed theory
Internship-Based Knowledge	Useful, particularly for clinical management

 

Candidates can check NEET PG 2026 subject-wise topics asked in the exam.

Subject	Topics
Microbiology	EHEC / HUS – Vero cell assay EHEC – Sorbitol MacConkey agar Metronidazole-resistant Giardiasis – Treatment Cryptosporidium – 4–6 µm oocyst Cryptosporidium – Life cycle Dermatophytes – T. rubrum / Farmer's nail Tinea corporis – Image-based Pityriasis versicolor – KOH appearance Diphtheria toxin – MOA Diphtheria – Culture media

 

Here we have provided the memory-based question for NEET PH 2026. The memory based questions may differe front he actual questions.

In case of substantial fetal abnormalities, MTP can be performed after the approval by the State medical board event at a gestational period of:
a) 20 weeks
b) 22 weeks
c) 24 weeks
d) 26 weeks

A known case of substance abuse is brought to emergency with respiratory depression, bradycardia, hypotension and pinpoint pupil. Which antipode should be given?

a) Naltrexone
b) Naloxone
c) Diazepam
d) Modafinil

Ans: B

A 42 year old man and his 28 year old wife present for preconception counselling. They have no significicant family history of genetic disorders. Which type of inheritance is classically associated with this phenomenon?

A Autosomal recessive
B. X-linked recessive
C. Autosomal dominant
D. Mitocondrial.

Ans. C

A 6 year old boy is diagnosed with Hemophilia A. There is no history of bleeding disorder in his father. Which  of the following relatives is most likely to also be affected?

A. father
B. Father's brother
C. Mother's brother
C. Mother's Sister

Ans. D

A 6 year old child is presented with leukocoria. H & E image is an below. Which of the following is most likely promote malignant transformation?

A. RB1 gain of function
B. TP5 gain of function
C. TP53 loss of function
D. RB1 loss of function

Ans. D

A 36 year old man presented with recurrent renal stones and peptic ulcer disease. Evaluation reveals primary hyperparathyroidism, a pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor, and a pituitary adenoma. Which of the following statements in correct?

A. It is caused by a RET proto-oncogene mutation
B. Routine screening for meduallry thyroid carcinoma is mandatory
C. It is associated with mutation of the MEN1 tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 11
D. It is caused by mutation of the VHL gene on chromosome 3.

Ans. C

A 22 year old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding since menarche. Her mother has a similar history. She also reports recurrent epistaxis and easy bruising. Platelet count is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Hemophilia A
B. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
C. Von Willebrand disease.
D. Factor XIII deficiency.

Ans. C

A 62 year old chronic smoker present with cough, weight loss, and hemoptysis. CT chest shows a central hilar mass. Biopsy reveals sheets of small round blue cells with scant cytoplasm, nuclear molding, finely granular chromatin, and extensive necrosis. Immunohistochemistry shows strong synaptophysin positivity. What is most likely diagnosis?
A Small Cell Carcinoma
B Adenocarcinoma
C Squamous Cell Carcinoma
D Large Cell Carninoma

Ans C

overgrowth/dystrophy. The causative organism is identified as Trichophyton rubrum. Based on its natural habitat, T. rubrim belongs to which group of dermatophhytes?

A geophilic
B Anthropophilic
C Zoophilic

Ans B.

Worker with bradykinesia rigidity h/o working in steel industry No h/o seizure

A. Carbon disulphides
B. Occupational disorder
C. Chronic arsenic
D. Manganese

Ans. D

Polio with neutralizing antibiotics disappearing by 12-17 weeks (week not sure) Polio with neutralizing antibodies persisting for life A chart was given.

A. Polio with lifelong immunity
B. Polio with specific duration (some number were given)
C. Japanese encephalitis
D. Yellow Fever.

Lecturer divided the large group of people after the lecture into smaller groups to make them actively participate.
A. Active
B One to one communication
C Passive
D Demonstration
Ans. A

A patient presents with unilateral high pitched tinnitus and sensorineural hearing loss. A lesion involving the posterior aspect of the temporal bone is suspected. What is the gold standard investigation of choice?

A Echocardigraphy
B HRCT of the temporal bone
C BERA
D MRI gadolinium based of cerebellopontine angle

Ans. D

Ring-Shaped itchy skin lesion

A patient presents with mildly erythematous, pruritic, ring shaped lesions over the body. An image of lesion is shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Tinea corporis
B. Psoriasis
C. Pityriasis versicolor
D. Pityriasis rosea

Ans. A

Pityriasis versicolor - KoH appearance
A patient has pigmentary lesions suggestive of pityriasis versicolor. WHat is the characteristics appearance of KOH examination?
A. Claw-clutch appearance
B. Banana-and-grapes
C. Church-spire appearance

Ans. B.

Ecological classification of Trubrum
Trichophytion rubrum is primarily:
A. Geophilic
B. Zoophilic
C. Anthropophilic
D. Both geophilic and zoophilic

Ans. C

EHEC / HUS – Gold-standard confirmation
A patient develops bloody diarrhoea followed by hemolytic uremic syndrome. Which of the following is the gold-standard/confirmatory method for detection of the responsible toxin?
A. Sorbitol MacConkey agar
B. ELISA for Shiga toxin
C. Vero cell cytotoxicity assay
D. Routine MacConkey agar

Ans. C

EHEC – Culture medium
Which medium is classically used to differentiate E. coli O157:H7 (EHEC) from most other E. coli?
A. MacConkey agar
B. Sorbitol MacConkey agar
C. TCBS agar
D. XLD agar

Ans. B

Metronidazole-refractory giardiasis
A patient with giardiasis continues to have symptoms despite treatment with metronidazole. Which of the following may be used as an alternative treatment?
A. Nitazoxanide
B.
C. Spiramycin
D.

Ans. A

HIV patient + 4–6 µm organism
An HIV-positive patient presents with chronic watery diarrhoea. Stool examination demonstrates 4–6 µm acid-fast oocysts. Which organism is most likely?
A. Cyclospora cayetanensis
B. Cystoisospora belli
C. Cryptosporidium spp.
D. Giardia duodenalis

Ans. C

Cryptosporidium life cycle
Which statement is correct?
A. Humans acquire infection through skin penetration by larvae
B. Mosquito acts as the definitive host
C. Ingestion of sporulated oocysts initiates infection
D. An intermediate host is essential for completion of its life cycle

Ans. C

Cholera vs pertussis toxin
Which of the following correctly differentiates the actions of cholera and pertussis toxins?
A. Cholera inhibits Gi; pertussis activates Gs
B. Cholera activates Gsα; pertussis inhibits Giα
C. Both inhibit Gsα
D. Both directly inhibit adenylate cyclase

Ans. B

Rapid growth of C. diphtheriae
Which medium facilitates rapid growth/enrichment of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
A. Potassium tellurite agar
B. Tinsdale medium
C. Loeffler serum slope
D. Blood agar

Ans. C

Diphtheria toxin mechanism
What is the mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin?

A. Activation of adenylate cyclase
B.
C.
D. ADP-ribosylation of EF-2

Ans. D

Selective medium for C. diphtheriae
Which medium is useful as a selective/differential medium for Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

A. Loeffler serum slope
B. Tellurite-containing medium / Tinsdale medium
C. Lowenstein-Jensen medium
D. MacConkey agar

Ans. B

Waterhouse–Friderichsen syndrome
A patient with severe infection develops petechial/purpuric lesions and acute adrenal gland damage/hemorrhage. Which organism is the likely cause?

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Staphylococcus aureus

Ans. C

Scrub typhus – organism + vector
A patient with a relevant travel history to Ladakh presents with fever and a characteristic eschar. Which combination of causative organism and vector is correct?

A. Rickettsia prowazekii – body louse
B. Rickettsia typhi – rat flea
C. Orientia tsutsugamushi – trombiculid mite / chigger
D. Rickettsia rickettsii – hard tick

Ans. C

Erythema migrans – treatment
An image shows the characteristic erythema migrans lesion. What is the drug of choice?

A. Azithromycin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Doxycycline
D. Metronidazole

Ans. C

Candidates can check expected marks vs rank for NEET PG 2026 here.

Score	Expected Rank	Percentile
700	~6	100
660	~155	99.9
620	~1,570	99.4
600	~3,400	98.7
580	~6,275	97.6
560	~10,275	96.1
540	~15,200	94.2
520	~21,100	91.9
500	~27,900	89.3
480	~34,900	86.6
460	~42,650	83.6
440	~50,850	80.5
420	~59,150	77.3
400	~67,800	74
380	~76,750	70.5
360	~86,000	66.9
340	~95,600	63.2
320	~105,600	59.4
300	~116,400	55.2
276	~129,900	50.0 — General cutoff
255	~142,800	45.1 — PwBD cutoff
235	~155,850	40.1 — SC/ST/OBC cutoff
220	~166,050	36.1
200	~180,000	30.7

 

As NEET PG exam is conducted in online mode, the hard copy of NEET PG question paper is not available to candidates. NBE doesn't release the official question paper for NEET PG. Candidates will find the exam analaysis of NEET PG on the basis of memory based questions.

It must be noted that candidates are not allowed to reveal the content of the test paper as they have to sign a Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) while applying for the exam. Hence, the exact questions asked in the examination can’t be identified. However, candidates can recall questions as per their memory and share them with others. Read the article to know more about the exam analysis of NEET PG 2025 exam.

Also Read: NEET PG Counselling Registration and Choice Filling

 

On behalf of Shiksha.com, we approached some of the candidates for their reactions at exam centre. They provided insight into NEET PG 2025 question paper. This exam analysis is solely based on the response of students who appeared for the exam on Sunday. Given below NEET PG 2025 analysis based on information provided by students.

Difficulty level: According to students, the overall difficulty level of the exam was easy to moderate

Clinical based questionss: Questions were based on clinical scenario. A good number of questions were from Gynae, Pharmacology, Surgury,  Ophthalmology, General Medicine (including Dermatology, Psychiatry), Surgery etc. Questions were asked from previous year papers.

Good attempt: A total of 170-180 questions were good attempt

Exam postponment helped: Students said they got extra time for preparation as date was extended.

 

In comparision to 2024, the paper was difficult in 2025. Questions were mostly easy and only 5-10% were difficult in NEET PG 2025 exam. Most of the questions were clinical based from Surgury, Optho and Gyneacology in 2024 while this time questions were from Gynaecology and Pharmacology. 

NEET PG 2024 Analysis

Difficulty level: According to students, the overall difficulty level of the exam was moderate difficult

Clinical based questionss: Questions were based on clinical scenario. Most number of questions were from minor subjects. A good number of questions were from Surgury, Optho and Gyneacology. Paper was lenthy.

Good attempt: A total of 160-170 questions were good attempt

No issue with time bound section: Students said they didn't face any difficulty with time bound section introduced this year by NBE.