GPAT 2025 Question Paper and Answer Key Solutions (Available); Check Memory Based Questions & Answers

GPAT 2025 exam was successfully conducted on May 25, 2025. Candidates who appeared for the exam can refer to the memory-based answer keys released by various coaching institutes to evaluate their marks. 

GPAT 2025 test was given in computer-based mode. Because of the online medium, it was difficult for the candidates to remember all the questions. Memory-based questions and answers for the GPAT exam are compiled from student feedback and posted on the page. NBEMS will publish the official answer key for GPAT 2025 prior to June 25, 2025, on its official website, natboard.edu.in. Numerous leading coaching centers have published the unofficial GPAT answer key 2025, which is refreshed on the page below. With the use of the GPAT 2025 question paper and answer key solutions PDF, students can compute their test scores.

GPAT 2025 Question Paper and Answer Key Solution PDF Download By Coaching Institutes

Some of the top coaching institutes released the memory-based questions and GPAT answer key 2025, which are updated below. 

Memory-based GPAT 2025 Question and Answer Key

1. Match the following
Schedule
(P) Schedule 'H'
(Q) Schedule 'G'
(R) Schedule 'P'
(S) Schedule 'F2'

Description
(I) Life period of drugs
(II) Drugs used under RMP
(III) List of Prescription Drugs
(IV) Standards for surgical dressing

Options:
(a) P-I, Q-III, R-IV, S-II
(b) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II
(c) P-III, Q-II, R-I, S-IV
(d) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I

Answer: C

2. Schedules and Descriptions

1. Schedule FF → [S] Standards for Ophthalmic preparations

2. Schedule F3 → [R] Standards for sterilized umbilical tapes

3. Schedule V →  [P] Standards of patent and proprietary medicines

4. Schedule Y →  [Q] Requirements and guidelines for clinical trials

Answer: C. 1 - [S], 2 - [R], 3 - [P], 4 - [Q]

3."If the label or the container bears the name of an individual or company purporting to be the manufacturer of the drug, which individual or company is fictitious or does not exist, it is:"

Answer: A

4. "ISO for quality assurance of Design, Development, Processing, Installation, and Servicing is:"

Answer: B. ISO 9001

5. "According to the ICH guidelines for stability studies, Climatic Zone II temperature and relative humidity are respectively:" 

Answer: A. 25°C and RH 60%

6. "How much volume of Raw spirit can an excise officer withdraw as sample?"

Answer: C. 

Three samples of same batch, each of them should not be more than 100 ml

7. "Minimum manufacturing space for 'Habb-Unani medicine' as per Schedule of D and C Act?"

Answer: 100 Sq. Ft.

8. "Manufacturing Specification for tooling has been standardized by?" 

Answer: C. Indian Pharmacopoeial Commission

9.Match the pair of drugs and their family:

Column A (Drugs):

1. Snake root

2. Artemisia

3. Bitter almond

4. Myrrh

Column B (Family):

• [P] Compositae

• [Q] Rosaceae

• [R] Apocynaceae

• [S] Burseraceae

Drug	Family
1. Snake root	R. Apocynaceae
2. Artemisia	P. Compositae
3. Bitter almond	Q. Rosaceae
4. Myrrh	S. Burseraceae

Answer: Correct Answer: (a) 1-[R], 2-[P], 3-[Q], 4-[S]

10. Which of the following alkaloid are found as salt of meconic acid?"

• (a) Rauwolfia Alkaloid

• (b) Tropane Alkaloid

• (c) Ergot Alkaloid

• (d) Opium Alkaloid

Answer: D. Opium Alkaloid

11. Choose the correct statement from the following:

[P] Anthraquinone derivatives are generally detected by Borntrager’s test
[Q] Anthrone is yellow color substance and soluble in alkali
[R] Anthranol is insoluble in alkali and shows strong red fluorescence
[S] Borntrager’s test gives negative result with Anthranol (Reduced form)

(a) P and S Only
(b) R Only
(c) Q and R Only
(d) P Only

Answer: A. 

12. Choose the correct statement from the following:

[A] Tannin solution precipitate alkaloid
[B] Hydrolysable tannin produce gallic and ellagic acid by enzymatic and acid hydrolysis
[C] Condense tannin converted into red color substance known as phlobaphene on acid and enzymatic hydrolysis
[D] Tannin are insoluble in water

(a) A and C Only
(b) B Only D Only
(c) C Only
(d) A, B and C are correct

Answer: D

13. Trikatu in Ayurveda is a combination of:

(a) Black mustard, Long pepper, Ginger
(b) Black pepper, Long pepper, Betal
(c) Black pepper, Long pepper, Ginger
(d) Black pepper, Small pepper, Ginger

Answer: D

Black pepper, Long pepper, Ginger

14. Glycogenic amino acid entered TCA cycle EXCEPT:

(a) Alanine
(b) Glycine
(c) Glutamate
(d) Aspartate

Answer: B

15.To match the diseases with their causative agents, let's analyze each pair:

• Tuberculosis (P): Caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is a bacterium. So, P matches with (1) Bacterial.
• Diphtheria (Q): Caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae, which produces a toxin (diphtheria toxin). So, Q matches with (3) Toxoids.
• Yellow fever (R): Caused by the yellow fever virus, transmitted by mosquitoes. So, R matches with (2) Viral.
• Malaria (S): Caused by Plasmodium, a protozoan parasite. So, S matches with (4) Protozoal.

Answer: A

16. Which of the following is used to evaluate disinfect?

• Widal test: This test is used to diagnose typhoid fever by detecting antibodies against Salmonella typhi, not for evaluating disinfectants.
• VRDL test: The Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test is used to diagnose syphilis by detecting antibodies, not for disinfectants.
• Chick Martin test: This is a historical test used to evaluate the efficacy of disinfectants by determining the phenol coefficient, which compares a disinfectant's effectiveness to phenol.
• None of these: This would apply if none of the tests were relevant.

Answer: C

17. Oral vaccines such as Dukoral®, Shanchol™ are used for prevention of

(a) Pneumonia

(b) Ebola virus

(c) Cholera

(d) Polio

Answer: C

 18. Which of the following parasites is transmitted through the bite of a blackfly?

(a) Trypanosoma brucei

(b) Onchocerca volvulus

(c) Plasmodium falciparum

(d) Schistosoma mansoni

Answer: B

19. Which statistical test is used to compare the mean of two identical groups?

(a) ANOVA

(b) Sample t test

(c) Paired t test

(d) Pooled t test

Answer: C

20. Which enzyme is responsible for albinism?

(a) Beta-hydroxylase

(b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase

(c) Hydroxylase

(d) Tyrosinase

Answer: D

21. Which anemia is caused due to microcytic hypochromic red blood cells?

(a) Pernicious anemia

(b) Aplastic anemia

(c) Iron deficiency anemia

(d) Hemolytic anemia

Answer: C

22. Which of the following is the differential test, i.e., it does not require the assumption of population following normal or differential distribution?

(a) ANOVA

(b) Student T test

(c) Fisher LSD test

(d) Kruskal-Wallis test

Answer: D

23. Which of the following is the correct stability order of alkenes?

(a) Trans-2-Butene > Cis-2-Butene > Isobutene > But-1-ene

(b) Cis-2-Butene > Trans-2-butene > Isobutene > But-1-ene

(c) Isobutene > But-1-ene > Cis-2-Butene > Trans-2-butene

(d) Isobutene > Trans-2-butene > Cis-2-Butene > But-1-ene

Answer: D

24. Cis trans (E/Z) isomers, EXCEPT

(a) 1-butene

(b) 2-butene-1-ol

(c) 2-chloro-3-hexene

(d) 4-Chloro-2-pentene

Answer: A

25. Number of stereoisomers of 3-bromo-2-butanol

(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) 8

Answer: B

26. In Friedel-Crafts reaction, benzene is reacted with isopropyl bromide with aluminium trichloride gives

(a) Benzophenone

(b) Acetophenone

(c) Isopropyl benzene

(d) n-Propyl benzene

Answer: C

27. Number of conformational isomers of n-butane

(a) One-anti & one-gauche

(b) One-anti & two-gauche

(c) Two-anti & one-gauche

(d) Two-anti & two-gauche

Answer: B

28. Debye is unit of 

Answer: Dipole moment

29. Which is consider Morkonikov rule EXCEPT

(a) Addition of HI in an alkene

(b) Addition of HCl in an alkene

(c) Addition of HBr in presence of peroxide in an alkene

(d) Addition of H₂O in presence of acid

Answer:C

30. In Baeyer strain theory, which cycloalkane is more stable?

(a) Cyclopropane

(b) Cyclobutane

(c) Cyclopentane

(d) Cyclooctane

Answer:C

31. Alkyl halide is convert to alkan?

Answer: Wurtz reaction

32. Aryl diazonium reacts with fluoroborate to give Arylfluoride
Answer: Balz -Schiemann reaction

33. Which of the following is highly diazotized?
Answer: Aniline

34. Pyridine is a base with Kb value
Answer: 1.7x10 power (-9)

35. Naturally occuring pilocarpine is 
Answer: 3R, 4S (+) Pilocarpine

36. IN a Drug discovery process

1. Lead optimization
2. Target selection
3. Lead findings. 

Answer: 2-3-1

37. A/B Trans steroidal in a 5th position hydrogen?

Answer: Alpha configurations

38. Total number of carbon pregnane is 

Answer: 21

39. Hypnotics and sedative barbiturate pKa acid value?

Answer: 7-9

40. Structure of hybrid in methadone and meperidine?
Answer: Tramadol

Why use GPAT 2025 Question Paper and Answer Key Solution PDF

Performance Evaluation: Aspirants may verify their responses using the GPAT 2025 answer key to gauge their score and foresee whether they will become eligible for top M.Pharm colleges.

Clarifying Exam Pattern: By scrutinizing the GPAT previous year question paper, aspirants learn about the exam pattern, type of questions, and subject weightage, facilitating strategic preparation.
Familiarity with Difficulty Level: The question paper gives an idea about the difficulty level, making candidates better prepared to face the same kind of challenges in the coming exams.
Identifying Repeated Questions: Exact questions cannot be repeated, but sure patterns or topics recur, making sincere candidates better prepared.
Boosting Confidence: Familiarity with the exam pattern minimizes anxiety and increases confidence on the actual test day.

Also Check: GPAT 2025 Merit List, Ranks and Cutoff, Percentile 

How to Download GPAT 2025 Question Paper and Answer Key PDF

The GPAT 2025 answer key solutions and question paper PDF are made available by NBEMS on their official website, natboard.edu.in, usually within 15–20 days after the exam. To download them, follow these steps:
 Open natboard.edu.in
Find the Answer Key Section: Search for the link named "GPAT 2025 Question Paper and Response Sheet" or "Challenge Answer Key."

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