JEE Advanced Physics Questions with Solutions: 20 Most Difficult Questions in Past 10 Years, Download PDF Here

We have curated here all the previous JEE Advanced physics questions year wise and also separately provided 20 most difficult JEE Advanced Physics questions asked over the past 10 years. Scroll down for all details.

JEE Advanced Physics Questions: Physics has been trending as the trickiest section in the JEE Advanced exam. Although Maths is still considered the toughest one of the lot, the Physics section is said to have tricky questions and sometimes very lengthy and complicated numericals. JEE Advanced physics questions require special attention to the application of multiple concepts to arrive at a solution.

The physics section of the JEE Advanced exam includes a total of 17 questions, which together are worth 60 marks. It's important to note that the number of marks and the importance of each question can change from year to year. On the day of the exam, candidates receive specific guidelines and information about the JEE Advanced exam pattern along with the JEE Advanced question paper. 

JEE Advanced physics high weightage topics include motion (Kinematics), heat and energy (Thermodynamics), Modern Physics, electric components (Capacitors and Current Electricity), the force of attraction (Gravitation), light (Optics), and electric forces (Electrostatics).

On this page, aspirants of JEE Advanced exam can find year-wise JEE Advanced physics questions with solutions PDF and also 20 most difficult JEE Advanced Physics questions asked over the past 10 years.

20 Most Difficult JEE Advanced Physics Questions Asked in Previous 10 Years

Check below the most difficult questions in JEE Advanced physics in the past 10 years as analysed by the experts:

Q1: Three very large plates of the same area are kept parallel and close to each other. They are considered as ideal black surfaces and have very high thermal conductivity. The first and third plates are maintained at temperatures 2T and 3T respectively. The temperature of the middle (i.e. second) plate under steady state condition is: (JEE Advanced 2012, Paper 1)

1. $${\left(\frac{65}{2}\right)}^{\frac{1}{4}}T$$
2. $$\left( \frac{65}{2} \right)^{\frac{1}{4}}T ( 94 4 ) 1 4 T$$
4. $$\left( \frac{94}{4} \right)^{\frac{1}{4}}T (97) 1 4 T$$

Ans: C

Q2: The electrostatic energy of Z protons uniformly distributed throughout a spherical nucleus of radius R is given by:

$$E=\frac{3}{5}\frac{Z(Z-1)e^2}{4\pi {ϵ}_{0}R}$$

The measured masses of the neutron H, N, and O are 1.008665 u, 1.007825 u, 15.000109 u, and 15.003065 u, respectively. Given that the radii of both the N and O nuclei are the same, 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c² (c is the speed of light) and e²/(4πε0)=1.44 MeV fm. Assuming the difference between the binding energies of N and O is purely due to electrostatic energy, the radius of either of the nuclei is:  (JEE Advanced 2016, Paper 2)

(Take 1 fm = 10^-15m)

1. 2.85 fm
2. 3.03 fm
3. 3.42 fm
4. 3.80 fm

Ans: C

Q3: Two thin circular discs of mass m and 4m, having radii of a and 2a, respectively, are rigidly fixed by a massless, rigid rod of length l =√24a through their centers. This assembly is laid on a firm and flat surface, and set rolling without slipping on the surface so that the angular speed about the axis of the rod is a. The angular momentum of the entire assembly about the point 'O' is L^→ (see the figure). Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true? (JEE Advanced 2016, Paper 2)

 

 

1. The center of mass of the assembly rotates about the z-axis with an angular speed of ω/5
2. The magnitude of angular momentum of the center of mass of the assembly about the point O is 81 ma²ω
3. The magnitude of angular momentum of the assembly about its center of mass is 17 ma² ω/2
4. The magnitude of the z-component of is 55 ma²ω

Ans: A or A and C

Q4: One mole of a monatomic ideal gas undergoes four thermodynamic processes as shown schematically in the PV-diagram below.

Among these four processes, one is isobaric, one is isochoric, one is isothermal and one is adiabatic. Match the processes mentioned in List-1 with the corresponding statements in List-II. (JEE Advanced 2018, Paper 2)

LIST - I	LIST - II
P. In process I	1. Work done by the gas is zero
Q. In process II	2. Temperature of the gas remains unchanged
R. In process III	3. No heat is exchanged between the gas and its surroundings
S. In process IV	4. Work done by the gas is 6PoVo

1. P - 4; Q - 3; R - 1; S - 2
2. P - 1; Q - 3; R - 2; S - 4
3. P - 3; Q - 4; R - 1; S - 2
4. P - 3; Q - 4; R - 2; S - 1

Ans: C

Q5: A cylindrical tube, with its base as shown in the figure, is filled with water. It is moving down with a constant acceleration a along a fixed inclined plane with angle θ = 45°. P₁ and P₂ are pressures at points 1 and 2, respectively, located at the base of the tube. Let ẞ= (P₁-P₂)/(pgd), where p is the density of water, d is the inner diameter of the tube and g is the acceleration due to gravity. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct? (JEE Advanced 2021, Paper 1)

1. ẞ = 0 when a = g/√2
2. ẞ > 0 when a = 9/√2
3. B = √2-1 when a = 9/2
4. B = 1/√2 when a = g/2

Ans: A

Q6: For a prism of prism angle θ = 60°, the refractive indices of the left half and the right half are, respectively, n₁ and n₂ (n ≥ n₁) as shown in the figure. The angle of incidence i is chosen such that the incident light rays will have minimum deviation if n₁ = n2 = n = 1.5. For the case of unequal refractive indices, n₁ = n and n₂ = n + Δn (where Δn « n), the angle of emergence e = i + Δe. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct? (JEE Advanced 2021, Paper 2)

1. The value of Δe (in radians) is greater than that of Δn
2. Ae is proportional to Δn
3. Δe lies between 2.0 and 3.0 milliradians, if Δn = 2.8 × 10-3
4. Δe lies between 1.0 and 1.6 milliradians, if Δn = 2.8 × 10-3

Ans: B, C

Q7: A train with cross-sectional area S_t is moving with speed v_t inside a long tunnel of cross-sectional area S₀ (S₀=4S_t). Assume that almost all the air (density p) in front of the train flows back between its sides and the walls of the tunnel. Also, the air flow with respect to the train is steady and laminar. Take the ambient pressure and that inside the train to be p₀. If the pressure in the region between the sides of the train and the tunnel walls is p, then p₀ - p = (7/2N)pv_t².The value of N is ________ (JEE Advanced 2020, Paper 2)

Ans: 9

Q8: Two large circular discs separated by a distance of 0.01 m are connected to a battery via a switch as shown in the figure. Charged oil drops of density 900 kg m^-3 are released through a tiny hole at the center of the top disc. Once some oil drops achieve terminal velocity, the switch is closed to apply voltage of 200 V across the discs. As a result, an oil drop of radius 8 × 10^-7 m stops moving vertically and floats between the discs. The number of electrons present in this oil drop is (neglect the buoyancy force, take acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms^-2 and charge on an electron (e) = 1.6×10^-19 C). (JEE Advanced 2020, Paper 2)

Ans: 9

Q9: A hot air balloon is carrying some passengers, and a few sandbags of mass 1 kg each so that its total mass is 480 kg. Its effective volume giving the balloon its buoyancy is V. The balloon is floating at an equilibrium height of 100 m. When N number of sandbags are thrown out, the balloon rises to a new equilibrium height close to 150 m with its volume V remaining unchanged. If the variation of the density of air with height h from the ground is p(h) = p₀e ^-h/h0, where p₀ = 1.25 kg m^-3 and h₀ = 6000 m, the value of N is __ (JEE Advanced 2020, Paper 2)

Ans: 4

Q10: A point charge q of mass m is suspended vertically by a string of length l. A point dipole of dipole moment p^→ is now brought towards q from infinity so that the charge moves away. The final equilibrium position of the system including the direction of the dipole, the angles and distances is shown in the figure below. If the work done in bringing the dipole to this position is N x (mgh), where g is the acceleration due to gravity, then the value of N is ________ (Note that for three coplanar forces keeping a point mass in equilibrium, F/sinθ is the same for all forces, where F is any one of the forces and θ is the angle between the other two forces) (JEE Advanced 2020, Paper 2)

Ans: 2

Q11: A projectile is fired from the horizontal ground with speed and projection angle θ. When the acceleration due to gravity is g, the range of the projectile is d. If at the highest point in its trajectory, the projectile enters a different region where the effective acceleration due to gravity is g' = g/0.81 then the new range is d' = nd. The value of n is ___________ (JEE Advanced 2022, Paper 1)

Ans: 0.95

Q12: The minimum kinetic energy needed by an alpha particle to cause the nuclear reaction ¹⁶N₇ + ⁴He₂ → ¹H₁+¹⁹0₈ in a laboratory frame is n (in MeV). Assume that ¹⁶N₇ is at rest in the laboratory frame. The masses of ¹⁶N₇, ⁴He₂, ¹H₁ and ¹⁹0₈ can be taken to be 16.006 u, 4.003, 1.008 and 19.003 u, respectively, where 1 u = 930 MeVc^-2. The value of n is _________ (JEE Advanced 2022, Paper 1)

Ans: 2.33

Q13: A solid sphere of mass 1 kg and radius 1 m rolls without slipping on a fixed inclined plane with an angle of inclination -30° from the horizontal. Two forces of magnitude 1 N each, parallel to the incline, act on the sphere, both at distance r = 0.5 m from the center of the sphere, as shown in the figure. The acceleration of the sphere down the plane is ms^-2. (Take g = 10 ms^-2). (JEE Advanced 2022, Paper 1)

Ans: 2.86

Q14: A particle of mass 1 kg is subjected to a force which depends on the position as F^→ = -k(xi+yj) kg ms^-2 with k=1kgs^-2. At time t= 0, the particle's position r^→  = (1/√2i+√2j) m and its velocity v^→= (-√2i + √2j+2/πk)m^-1. Let v_x and v_y denote the x and y components of the particle's velocity, respectively. Ignore gravity. When z = 0.5 m, then the value of (xv_{y -} yv_x) is ________ m²s^-1 (JEE Advanced 2022, Paper 2)

Ans: 3

Q15: Two resistances R₁ = XΩ and R₂ = 1Ω are connected to a wire AB of uniform resistivity, as hown in the figure. The radius of the wire varies linearly along its axis from 0.2 mm at A to 1 mm at B. A galvanometer (G) connected to the center of the wire, 50 cm from each end along its axis, shows zero deflection when A and B are connected to a battery. The value of X is______ (JEE Advanced 2022, Paper 2)

Ans: 5

Q16: Consider a configuration of n identical units, each consisting of three layers. The first layer is a blumn of air of height h = 1/3cm, and the second and third layers are of equal thickness d = (√3-1)/2 cm and refractive indices µ₁=√3/2 and µ2=√3, respectively. A light source O is placed on top of the first unit, as shown in the figure. A ray of light from O is incident on the second layer of the first unit at an angle of θ = 60° to the normal. For a specific value of n, the ray of light emerges from the bottom of the configuration at a distance l = 8/√3 cm, as shown in the figure. The value of n is_ (JEE Advanced 2022, Paper 2)

Ans: 4

Q17: On a frictionless horizontal plane, a bob of mass m = 0.1 kg is attached to a spring with natural length l₀ = 0.1 m. The spring constant is k₁ = 0.009 Nm-¹ when the length of the spring l > l₀ and is k₂=0.016 Nm-¹ when l < l₀. Initially the bob is released from l = 0.15 m. Assume that Hooke's law remains valid throughout the motion. If the period of the full oscillation is T = (nπ) s, then the integer closest to n is __________ (JEE Advanced 2022, Paper 2)

Ans: 6

Q18: An object and a concave mirror of focal length f = 10 cm both move along the principal axis of the mirror with constant speeds. The object moves with speed Vo 15 cm s-¹ towards the mirror with respect to a laboratory frame. The distance between the object and the mirror at a given moment is denoted by u. When u = 30 cm, the speed of the mirror V_m is such that the image is instantaneously at rest with respect to the laboratory frame, and the object forms a real image. The magnitude of V_m is ___________ cms^-1. (JEE Advanced 2022, Paper 2)

Ans: 3

Q19: In the figure, the inner (shaded) region A represents a sphere of radius r_A = 1, within which the electrostatic charge density varies with the radial distance r from the center as p_A = kr, where k is positive. In the spherical shell B of outer radius r_B, the electrostatic charge density varies as p_B = 2k/r. Assume that dimensions are taken care of. All physical quantities are in their SI units. (JEE Advanced 2022, Paper 2)

Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?

1. If r_B ⁼ √(3/2), then the electric field is zero everywhere outside B.
2. If r_B ⁼ (3/2), then the electric potential just outside B is k/ε0.
3. If r_B ⁼ 2, then the total charge of the configuration is 15πk
4. If r_B ⁼ (5/2), then the magnitude of electric field just outside B is (13πk)/ε0

Ans: B

Also Read:

• JEE Advanced Syllabus for Chemistry
• JEE Advanced Syllabus for Physics
• JEE Advanced Syllabus for Mathematics

All JEE Advanced Physics Questions From Previous Years

Above we curated and provided you the most difficult questions in JEE Advanced physics over the past 10 years. However, candidates who wish to have all the previous year JEE Advanced physics questions for practice, can download the PDF files below:

JEE Advanced Physics Questions with Solutions 2024 to 2019:

Check below the JEE Advanced Physics questions with solutions PDF:

Year	JEE Advanced Physics questions with solutions
2024	Paper 1 - Download here Paper 2 - Download here
2023	Paper 1 - Download here Paper 2 -  Download here
2022	Paper 1 - Download here Paper 2 - Download here
2021	Paper 1 - Download here Paper 2 - Download here
2020	Paper 1 - Download here Paper 2 - Download here
2019	Paper 1 - Download here Paper 2 - Download here

Also Check:

JEE Advanced Chemistry Questions

JEE Advanced Maths Questions

JEE Advanced Physics Section Overview

Check below the details regarding the JEE Advanced physics section in the JEE Advanced question paper, followed in the past 2 years:

Total Marks in JEE Advanced Physics section: 120

• 60 marks in JEE Advanced paper 1
• 60 marks in JEE Advanced paper 2

In each paper of JEE Advanced, the Physics section has the following sections:

• Sec-I (Max. marks-12)
• Sec-II (Max. Marks-12)
• Sec-III (Max. marks-24)
• Sec-IV (Max. marks-12)

Number of questions and marks distribution in each of the sections is as follows:

Section	Number of questions and total marks	Marking Scheme
1	4 questions of 12 marks	+3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered) -1 in all other cases
2	3 questions of 12 marks	+4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen +3 If all four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered) -2 In all other cases
3	6 questions of 24 marks	+4 for the correct answer 0 for no attempts
4	4 questions of 12 marks	+3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered) -1 for the wrong attempts

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