UGC NET Political Science 2025: Top 30 Questions and Answers, PYQs, Syllabus and Cutoff
University Grants Commission National Eligibility Test 2025 ( UGC NET )
The UGC NET Political Science exam will be held on June 26, 2025. The UGC NET 2025 exam will be conducted from June 25 to 29, 2025. Candidates preparing for Political Science subject can scroll down for important questions and answers that will enhance the preparation level and help in the revision. In addition, check political science syllabus, pattern, previous year question papers, cutoff and more.
UGC NET 2025 Political Science Questions and Answers
UGC NET 2025 Political Science: The National Testing Agency (NTA) will conduct the UGC NET June session exam from June 25 to June 29, 2025. Candidates willing to appear for the UGC NET exam can refer to the Political Science important questions and answers that will help in revision, and can evaluate their preparation for the NTA UGC NET 2025 exam so far. The UGC NET Political Science exam will be conducted on June 26, 2025. Scroll down for some important questions and answers of Political Science, exam pattern, syllabus, previous year question papers, cutoff, and more.
Also Read:
Open the official website of NTA, find the "UGC NET Cut Off" link, now select History and choose the session of that particular year. The UGC NET cut-off marks will be displayed to download.
The UGC NET 2025 Cut off for the December session will be released at ugcnet.nta.nic.in. It is the minimum qualifying marks required by the student to clear the exam. The Cutoff PDF will be released along with the result.
- UGC NET Political Science 2025: Important Questions and Answers
- UGC NET Political Science Previous Year Question Papers
- UGC NET Political Science 2025 Important Units
- UGC NET Political Science 2025 Syllabus
- UGC NET Political Science Exam Pattern 2025
- UGC NET Political Science 2025 Expected Cut Off
UGC NET Political Science 2025: Important Questions and Answers
Scroll down for some of the important questions of the Political Science subject that will help in the revision for the upcoming June session exam.
1. Given below are two statements, one is Assertion (A) and another one is Reason (R).
Upcoming Sarkari Exam Dates
Assertion (A): 'Feminism is for everybody Passionate Politics book' is written by Catherine Mackinnon.
Reason R): The book appeals to everyone who is dedicated to justice, equality and respect for one another. A critical analysis to the most divisive and difficult topics that today feminist must deal with.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. D
2. Which of the following statements about B R Ambedkar is/are correct?
a. B.R Ambedkar created a model of the United States of India based on the lines of the USA but the model was rejected.
b. He called the governor as a nominal head and a rubber stamp with no real powers.
c. He was the chairman of the drafting committee of the Indian Constitution and the first law minister of independent India.
Choose the correct answers from the options given below:
A. b and c only
B. a and c only
C. a and b only
D. a, b and c
Ans. D
3. Which of the following statements is/are true about the "Human Relations Theory"?
a. It promotes diversity, with open relations and teamwork key increased organizational productivity.
b. The theory highlights the importance of human relations in public administration.
c. Workers or employees are human beings with all humanly attributes
A. b and c only
B. a and c only
C. a and b only
D. a, b and c
Ans. C
4. What are the key aspects of the theory of Utilitarianism?
A. Aggregationism
B. Partiality
C. Minimise utility
D. Deontological
Ans. A
5. Which of the following statement is/are true for Aristotle?
a. He was the founder of formal logic.
b. As per Aristotle, reality lies in a combination of form and matter.
c. He used optics in his Meteorology, treating it as a science.
A. b and c only
B. a and c only
C. a and b only
D. a, b and c
Ans. D
6. Which of the following is/are not correct regarding the Interim Government of 1946?
a. The government was formed by the Viceroy's Executive Council.
b. Muslim League did not joined the Interim Government.
c. Jawaharlal Nehru was the head of the Executive Council or Prime Minister.
A. b and c only
B. a and c only
C. Only b
D. Only a
Ans. C
7. Which of the following core issue are related to the neo-realist theory of International relations?
a. Emphasizes the structure rather than the internal characteristics of states.
b. Actors react in an anarchical environment
c. Relative power of different states can be classified as unipolar, bipolar, or multipolar.
A. b and c only
B. a and c only
C. a and b only
D. a, b and c
Ans. D
8. Which of the following statement is/are true about Frantz Fanon?
a. His work provides an analysis of the complex relationship between colonialism, racism and mental health.
b. He supported a form of socialist nationalism.
c. He believed that mental health treatment should be integrated into the community.
A. b and c only
B. a and c only
C. a and b only
D. a, b and c
Ans. D
9. Which one of the following books are not written by Karl Marx?
A. The Communist Manifesto
B. Wage Labour and Capital
C. Das Kapital
D. The Wretched of the Earth
Ans. D
10. The participatory democracy idea originated with
A. Karl Marks
B. Aristotle
C. Rousseau
D. None of the above
Ans. C
11. Which of the following are the salient features of the Draft National Water Policy 2012?
1. Rejuvenating catchment areas through nature-based solutions
2. Community based water management should be institutionalized and strengthened.
3. Encouragement of recycle and reuse
A. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 3 and 2
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans. D
12. Arrange in descending chronological order:
1. Consumer Protection (Amendment Act)
2. Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Act
3. Food Security Act
4. Right to Education
A. 2, 3, 4 and 1
B. 1, 3, 4 and 2
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 3, 1, 4 and 2
Ans. A
13. In which of the following areas MGNREGA 2009 scheme focus?
1. Rural Development
2. Proactively ensuring social inclusion
3. Strengthening the livelihood resource base of the poor
4. Strengthening Panchayati Raj Institutions
Choose
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. All the above
Ans. D
14. Working of the human mind by the Plato describes by
A. The doctrine of forms
B. The allegory of the cave
C. The metaphor of the divided line
D. All the above
Ans. D
15. In which of the following text the women is portrayed as 'Mother as she was', 'Mother as she is' and 'Mother as she will be':
A. Arthashastra
B. Anandamath
C. Mrinalini
D. Comparative analysis of men and women
Ans. B
Also Read: How to prepare for UGC NET 2025 exam in 1 month?
16. When was the national anthem 'Jana Gana Mana' first sung at the Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress?
A. 26 January 1936
B. 27 December 1911
C. 15 August 1916
D. 27 November 1930
Ans. B
17. Which of the following statement is correct?
1. Rights may be referred to as legitimate expectations.
2. Rights can have social character.
3. Rights can be given to a man against the social interest
Choose
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans. A
18. Judicial activism is associated with which article of the Indian Constitution?
A. Article 15
B. Article 18
C. Article 21
D. Article 25
Ans. B
19. Who opposed the idea of Panchayati Raj system in India?
A. Jaya Prakash Narayan
B. Mahatma Gandhi
C. B. R Ambedkar
D. Ram Manohar Lohia
Ans. C
20. Arrange in ascending order the important committees related to the Panchayati Raj system:
1. Ashok Mehta Committee
2. G.V. K Rao committee
3. Thungan committee
4. Hanumantha Rao Committee
Arrange
A. 2, 3, 1 and 4
B. 1, 4, 1 and 3
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 4, 2, and 3
Ans. D
21. Which of the following factors contribute to the evolution of the scientific management theory?
a. There should only be one method of working and must be defined scientifically.
b. Workers and managers should not work in harmony
c. Making sure consumers find a regular supply of goods
A. b and c only
B. a and c only
C. a and b only
D. a, b and c
Ans. B
22. When was the Consumer Protection Bill passed by the Indian parliament?
A. 11 July 2017
B. 19 August 2017
C. 23 July 2019
D. 6 August 2019
Ans. D
23. What do you mean by Hegemony?
A. Dominance of one group over another, often supported by legitimating norms and ideas.
B. Describes relations between states and states
C. Economic Exploitation
D. Social inequalities
Ans. A
24. Which of the following factors contribute to democratic transition?
1. Civil society activism
2. Breakdown of authoritarian regimes
3. International influence and support
Choose
A. Only 1
B. Both 2 and 3
C. Both 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans. D
25. How can democratization be reversed?
A. Manipulation of electoral processes
B. Consolidation of power by authoritarian leaders
C. Erosion of civil liberties
D. All of the above
Ans. D
26. When was the Maastricht Treaty signed?
A. 1990
B. 1991
C. 1992
D. 1993
Ans. C
27. Which of the following countries joined SCO in 2017?
A. Iran and Afghanistan
B. India and Nepal
C. Pakistan and Iran
D. Indian and Pakistan
Ans. D
28. When was the Mahad Satyagraha led by Ambedkar?
A. 1920
B. 1923
C. 1927
D. 1930
Ans. C
29. Who founded the "Self-Employed Women’s Association" (SEWA)?
A. Annie Besant
B. Sarala Devi Chaudhurani
C. Muthulakshmi Reddy
D. Ela Bhatt
Ans. D
30. Which of the following main methods of conflict resolution identified by Mary Parker Follet?
A. Compromise
B. Dominance
C. Integration
D. All the above
Ans. D
Also Read:
UGC NET Political Science Previous Year Question Papers
Candidates can scrol down for last five years political science question papers:
| Exam Name | Year | Question papers |
|---|---|---|
| UGC NET Political Science Question Paper (Shift-1) | 2024 | |
| UGC NET Political Science Question Paper (Shift-2) | 2024 | |
| UGC NET Political Science Question Paper (Shift-1) (Paper 1) | 2023 | |
| UGC NET Political Science Question Paper (Shift-1) (Paper 2) | 2023 | |
| UGC NET Political Science Question Paper (Shift-2) (Paper 1) | 2023 |
|
| UGC NET Political Science Question Paper (Shift-2) (Paper 2) | 2023 | Download PDF |
| UGC NET Political Science Question Paper Shift-2 | 2021 | Download_PDF |
| UGC NET Political Science Question Paper | 2020 | Download_PDF |
| UGC NET Political Science Question Paper Shift-2 | 2019 | Download_PDF |
Also Read:
UGC NET Political Science 2025 Important Units
UGC has divided the Political Science subject into ten units which are mentioned below:
Unit - 1 : Political Theory
Unit - 2 : Political Thought
Unit - 3 : Indian Political Thought
Unit - 4 : Comparative Political Analysis
Unit - 5 : International Relations
Unit - 6 : India’s Foreign Policy
Unit - 7 : Political Institutions in India
Unit - 8 : Political Processes in India
Unit - 9 : Public Administration
Unit – 10 : Governance and Public Policy in India
Also Read: UGC NET Sociology Syllabus 2025
UGC NET Political Science 2025 Syllabus
The NTA released the UGC NET Syllabus 2025 on the official website. Candidates who are preparaing for the UGC NET exam for the June session can check below the Political Science syllabus PDF. By downloading the syllabus in PDF format, candidates can study the detailed syllabus provided below.
| UGC NET Political Science Syllabus PDF | |
|---|---|
| UGC NET Political Science Syllabus in English | Download PDF |
| UGC NET Political Science Syllabus in Hindi | Download PDF |
Also Read:
UGC NET Political Science Exam Pattern 2025
UGC NET Political Science exam pattern comprises two papers- Paper 1 and 2. As per the prescribed UGC NET exam pattern, both papers contain multiple-choice questions (MCQs). Candidates need to complete both papers in a single duration of three hours. Have a look at the detailed UGC NET exam pattern 2025 below.
| UGC NET Paper |
Number of Questions |
Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Paper 1 |
50 |
100 |
| Paper 2 |
100 |
200 |
| Total |
150 |
300 |
Also Read:
UGC NET Political Science 2025 Expected Cut Off
The National Testing Agency (NTA) will publish the UGC NET 2025 cut-off subject and category-wise for the exam along with the declaration of the UGC NET 2025 June result. As per the past year trends, candidates can check below the expected cutoff percentile for Political Science subject.
| Category | JRF | Assistant Professor |
|---|---|---|
| General (Unreserved) | 98.72% | 96.23% |
| OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) | 99.23% | 91.21% |
| SC | 97.43% | 85.24% |
| ST | 96.72% | 81.28% |
| EWS | 99.21% | 90.13% |
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Student Forum
Anything you would want to ask experts?B
Beginner-Level 1
Answered 2 weeks ago
The authority will release the NTA UGC NET provisional answer key after the conclusion of an exam in a few days along with the question paper and response sheet. It will help the candidates to verify their responses, estimate the probable scores and evaluate their performance in the examination.
G
Contributor-Level 6
Answered 2 weeks ago
No. candidate can not submit the UGC NET application form offline. It was released on the official portal at ugcnet.nta.nic.in. The application form was released online on October 7. All the process of the online form including the registration, document upload, fee payment, confirmation, etc. must
K
Contributor-Level 6
Answered 2 weeks ago
In the UGC NET exam, two marks are awarded for every correct answer. There is no negative marking in the exam. For every correct answer, two marks are awarded. Scroll down to know the marking scheme.
UGC NET Marking Parameters | Marks Allotted |
|---|---|
Correct answer | +2 |
Incorrect answer | 0 |
Un-attempted question | 0 |
N
Contributor-Level 6
Answered 2 weeks ago
The NTA released the UGC NETadmit card 2025 for the December session exam. It was released on the official portal at ugcnet.nta.nic.in. The admit card is a mandatory document thata needs to be carried at the examination centre by the candidate.
J
Contributor-Level 6
Answered 2 weeks ago
The UGC NET December session exam was over on January 7. As per the students' feedback UGC NET January 2 Paper 1 was Moderate some felt that Assertion & Reasoning part was a bit difficult. Paper 1 was lengthy.
S
Contributor-Level 6
Answered 2 weeks ago
The questions asked in the NTA UGC NET Paper 1 exam are generic and intend to assess the teaching or research aptitude of the candidate. Details are provided below:
UGC NET Paper 1 Sections | No. of Questions | Total Marks |
|---|---|---|
Teaching Aptitude | 5 | 10 |
Research Aptitude | 5 | 10 |
Reading Comprehension | 5 | 10 |
Communication | 5 | 10 |
Reasoning (including Maths) | 5 | 10 |
Logical Reasoning | 5 | 10 |
Data Interpretation | 5 | 10 |
Information & Communication Technology (ICT) | 5 | 10 |
People & Environment | 5 | 10 |
Higher Education System: Governance, Polity & Administration | 5 | 10 |
Total | 50 | 100 |
M
Contributor-Level 6
Answered 2 weeks ago
The NTA UGC NET exam consists of two papers and candidates need to complete it in a duration of three hours. Candidates can check below the exam pattern for both papers.
UGC NET Paper | Number of Questions | Total Marks |
|---|---|---|
UGC NET Paper 1 | 50 | 100 |
UGC NET Paper 2 | 100 | 200 |
Total | 150 | 300 |
C
Contributor-Level 6
Answered 2 weeks ago
Candidates can chech below the methods to downlaod the UGC NET admit card:
- Go to the ugcnet.nta.nic.in
- Click on the hall ticket link for the exam
- Enter the details asked on the login page- application number, date of birth, and security pin
- Click on the submit button
- Download and save it
S
Contributor-Level 6
Answered 3 weeks ago
The UGC NET Paper 2 subject specific i.e, Economics, consists of 100 questions worth 2 marks each. The exam will be of 3-hour duration, so there will be no breaks between paper 1 and paper 2. Candidates should cover all significant units of the of the Economics syllabus as mentioned below:
- Micro Econ
S
Contributor-Level 10
UGC NET Notifications
The UGC NET 2025 expected cutoff may fall within the range of 216 to 160 for all subjects and categories. The NTA will release the UGC NET 2025 Dec session cutoff marks after the declaration of the result. Candidates who will meet or exceed the cutoff marks will qualify for further recruitment process.