INI CET 2026 Question Paper with Answer Key (Available): PDF Download

The All India Institute of Medical Science conducted the INI CET 2026 exam at the designated centres as a Computer-Based Test(CBT). The candidates can see the INI CET Exam May 2026 Question Paper for upcoming session.

INI CET 2026 exam was conducted online in a single shift and it was over at 12.00 PM. The exam was conducted nationwide to select the candidates for the Master's Course offered by the Institutes of National Importance. The AIIMS released the INICET 2026 Admit Card on May 9 under the candidate’s login. The exam conducting body also released the exam day instructions for the candidates. 

Also Check the INI CET 2026 Exam Analysis 

The All India Institute of Medical Science conduct the INI CET exam every year online as a Computer-Based Test(CBT). The AIIMS does not release the official question paper and answer key in the public domain. The AIIMS maintain the secrecy of the exam religiously. In the exam day instructions, it is mentioned that the candidates are allowed to use the backside of the INI CET admit card for rough work, but they will be required to deposit their admit card to the invigilator.

INI CET 2026 May Exam Questions and Answers PDF Download

The candidates can get here the INI CET 2026 May Exam Question paper and Answer PDF.

Download INI CET 2026 Question Answer PDF

INI CET 2026 Expected Cutoff

The candidates can see below the INI CET 2026 expected cutoff based on the inputs received from the candidates who appeared in the exam and the experts associated with the exam.

Category	Cutoff
Un Reserved	160+6
EWS	156+6
OBC	153+6
SC	125+6
ST	100+6

Get more details about the INI CET Cutoff.

INI CET 2026 Result Date

The All India Institute of Medical Science has notified that the INI CET 2026 May Result was released on May 23.

INI CET 2026 Question Paper Recall

The INI CET 2026 paper was difficult, with some moderate questions. The candidates who appeared in the exam shared that the paper was not designed to select; it is designed to reject the majority of the candidates because the number of seats is limited in the INICET exam. The question paper was based on the previous year's question papers.

The questions asked in INICET May 2026 Exam with their answers are given below:

Topic: Effects of Anaesthesia

Question. A 45-year-old woman undergoes surgery for a parotid swelling under general anaesthesia. Ten minutes after induction, she develops: Rapid rise in end-tidal CO₂(EtCO₂), increasing body temperature Tachycardia Hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Malignant hyperthermia

B) Heat stroke

C) Heat exhaustion

D) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome"

Answer. Malignant hyperthermia

Question. "Regarding the hemodynamic effects of halothane anaesthesia, which of the following statements are correct?

1. Halothane causes direct myocardial depression, reducing cardiac output

2. Blood pressure initially falls after induction and subsequently plateaus at a lower level

3. Blood pressure progressively decreases throughout surgery, irrespective of anaesthetic depth

4. Halothane increases myocardial sensitivity to catecholamines, increasing arrhythmia risk

A) 1, 3, 4

B) 1, 2, 3

C) 1, 2, 4

D) 2, 3, 4"

Answer. C. 1, 2 and 4.

Question. Which of the following drugs does not typically cause respiratory paralysis/depression in overdose?

A) Phenobarbitone

B) Opioids

C) Thiopentone

D) Ketamine

Answer. D - Ketamine

Question. "During a lumbar puncture, the following structures are pierced:

1. Ligamentum flavum
2. Dura mater
3. Interspinous ligament
4. Arachnoid mater
5. Supraspinous ligament

Options. 

A) 5 --> 3-->1--> 2-->4

B) 3-->5-->1-->2--> 4

C) 5-->1-->3-->2-->4

D) 5-->3-->2-->1-->4

Answer. A. 5 --> 3-->1--> 2-->4

Topic - Forensic Medicine and Toxicology (FMT)

Question. What is the ideal depth for the pigment deposition in the image?

a) Epidermis

b) Superficial layer of dermis

c) Deeper layer of dermis

d) Beyond the skin

Answer. B. Superficial layer of dermis

Question. Match the following

A. Carbon monoxide                     1. Bitter almond smell

B. Organophosphorus                   2. Cherry red color

C. Cyanide                                    3. Garlicky odor

D. Phosphorus                              4. Pinpoint pupils with secretions

a) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4"

Answer. b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Question. Burn injury to the face and head in case of bomb blast injury is categorized under?

a) Primary blast injury

b) Secondary blast injury

c) Tertiary blast injury

d) Quaternary blast injury

Answer. d) Quaternary blast injury"

Topic - Radiology

Question.  An ultrasonography image of the right iliac fossa is given. What is the most appropriate next step in management? The patient came after 48 hours of pain. It is an image based question. 

A) Surgery

B) CECT

C) Percutaneous drainage

D) USG Guided Drainage

Answer. B) CECT

Topic-Microbiology

Question. A 24-year-old woman presents with high fever, hypotension, diffuse erythematous rash, vomiting, and multiorgan dysfunction during menstruation. The diagnosis is confirmed as toxic shock syndrome (TSS) caused by Staphylococcus aureus. What is the mechanism of action of the toxin responsible?

A) ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor-2 (EF-2), causing inhibition of protein synthesis

B) Cross-linking of MHC class II molecules with T-cell receptors causing polyclonal T-cell activation

C) Cross-linking of MHC Class I Molecules with T-Cell receptors causing polyclonal T-cell activation

D) Cleavage of SNARE proteins causing inhibition of acetylcholine release

Answer. B) Cross-linking of MHC class II molecules with T-cell receptors, causing polyclonal T-cell activation

Question. A 40-year-old woman underwent splenectomy 8 years ago. She now presents following a road traffic accident with fever, hypotension, and septic shock. Empirical antibiotic therapy should provide coverage against which of the following organisms most importantly?

A) Streptococcus pneumoniae

B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Answer. A) Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question. A patient with HIV infection presents with headache, fever, and altered sensorium. CSF examination shows budding yeast forms with an unstained capsule on Nigrosin preparation. What is the most likely organism?

A) Cryptococcus neoformans

B) Candida albicans

C) Histoplasma capsulatum

D) Pneumocystis jirovecii

Answer. A) Cryptococcus neoformans

Question. A 38-year-old man with advanced HIV infection (CD4 count: 60 cells/mm³) presents with:Chronic diarrhea for 2 monthsSignificant weight lossFeverFatigueA colonic biopsy is performed due to persistent symptoms, and the histopathological image provided below. What is the most likely organism?

A) Cryptosporidium parvum

B) Giardia lamblia

C) Cryptococcus neoformans

D) Entamoeba histolytica

Answer. A) Cryptosporidium parvum

Question. A 26-year-old sexually active male presents with multiple painful vesicular lesions over the penis and scrotum for the past 2–3 days, associated with burning sensation and dysuria. On examination, grouped vesicles on an erythematous base are seen over the genital region (image provided below). What is the most likely causative organism?

                                                   

A) Haemophilus ducreyi

B) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

C) Treponema pallidum

D) Chlamydia trachomatis

Answer. B) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

Question. "A 7-year-old child presents with multiple scaly patches over the scalp associated with itching and patchy hair loss for 3 weeks. Examination reveals well-defined lesions with broken hairs, suggestive of tinea capitis (image provided below). What is the most appropriate treatment? 

A) Oral antifungal therapy

B) Oral antibiotic therapy

C) Methotrexate

D) Topical corticosteroids"

Answer. A. Oral antifungal therapy

Question. A 40-year-old woman presents with:

Malar telangiectasia

Skin tightening suggestive of scleroderma

Progressive dyspnea on exertion

Echocardiography reveals a “fish-mouth” appearance of the mitral valve. The lesion is attributed to chronic rheumatic heart disease. Which of the following microorganisms is most likely implicated in the pathogenesis of this valvular lesion?

A) Streptococcus pyogenes

B) Staphylococcus aureus

C) Streptococcus pneumoniae

D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Answer. A. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus).

Question. A 6-week-old infant, who has remained hospitalised since birth due to prematurity and prolonged NICU stay, develops:

• Fever
• Poor feeding
• Lethargy
• Seizures

CSF findings are suggestive of bacterial meningitis. What is the most likely causative organism?

A) Haemophilus influenzae

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae

C) Staphylococcus aureus

D) Listeria monocytogenes

Answer. C. Staphylococcus aureus

Question. Regarding ESBL-producing organisms, which of the following statements are correct?

1. ESBL enzymes are commonly plasmid-mediated  β-lactamases
2. ESBL-producing organisms are resistant to third-generation cephalosporins and aztreonam but characteristically susceptible to penicillin and cefoxitin
3. Carbapenems have proven activity against serious ESBL infections and are often preferred treatment options
4. Piperacillin–tazobactam may be used as an alternative in selected ESBL infections depending on source, susceptibility, and severity

A) 1, 3, 4

B) 1, 2, 4

C) 2, 3, 4

D) 3, 4

Answer. A. 1, 3, 4

Question. A 28-year-old woman presents with :

• Greenish vaginal discharge
• Vulvovaginal irritation
• Negative Amsel criteria
• Positive whiff test (fishy odor)

Wet mount examination is performed. What is the most likely morphology of the causative organism?

A) Motile, pear-shaped flagellated trophozoite with an undulating membrane

B) Budding yeast forms with pseudohyphae

C) Intracellular Gram-negative diplococci within neutrophils

D) Clue cells coated with adherent coccobacilli"

Answer. A.  Motile, pear-shaped flagellated trophozoite with an undulating membrane

Question. A stool microscopy image is shown below. Which of the following statements regarding this organism is true?

A) Transmission occurs through ingestion of contaminated food and water

B) The image represents eggs of Strongyloides stercoralis

C) The image represents eggs of Hymenolepis nana

D) The organism can cause cutaneous larva migrans"

Answer. D. The organism can cause cutaneous larva migrans"

Question. An epidemiologist studying an outbreak notes that all affected individuals develop symptoms within a short interval, with incidence peaking at nearly the same time. Which of the following diseases is most likely to produce such an epidemic curve?

A) Salmonellosis

B) Staphylococcal food poisoning

C) Measles

D) Typhoid fever"

Answer. B. Staphylococcal food poisoning

Question. A 35-year-old man with HIV infection presents with:

• Headache
• Fever
• Altered sensorium
• Focal neurological deficits

His CD4 count is 40 cells/mm³. MRI brain shows multiple ring-enhancing lesions involving basal ganglia and corticomedullary junction. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) CNS tuberculosis (tuberculoma)

B) Cerebral toxoplasmosis

C) Primary CNS lymphoma

D) Cryptococcal meningitis

Answer. B. Cerebral toxoplasmosis

Question.  A 9-month-old infant presents with:

• Intense itching
• Eczematous skin changes
• Multiple papulovesicular lesions involving the palms, soles, and periumbilical region

The clinical image is shown below.

Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

Answer. A. Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis

Question.  In which layer is this tattoo present?

A) Dermis

B) Epidermis

C) Subcutaneous

D) Muscle

Answer. A. Dermis

Question.  A 2-month-old infant is brought with multiple erythematous papules, vesicles, and excoriations over the palms, soles, and around the umbilicus for the past 1 week. The baby is irritable and cries excessively, especially at night. Similar lesions are noted over the scalp and face. The mother also reports itching lesions on her hands.

A) Bullous impetigo

B) Infantile scabies

C) Atopic dermatitis

D) Epidermolysis bullosa

Answer. B. Infantile scabies

Topic - BioChemistry

Question. Hypertriglyceridemia is seen in all of the following conditions except:

A) Type 2 diabetes mellitus

B) High fructose diet

C) Abetalipoproteinemia

D) Nephrotic syndrome

Answer. C. Abetalipoproteinemia

Question. Which of the following vitamins/coenzymes plays the most important role in transamination reactions involved in amino acid

A) Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)

B) Pyridoxal phosphate

C) NAD

D) FAD
Answer. B. Pyridoxal phosphate

Question. 

Clinical Condition	Acid-Base Disorder
A. Bronchopneumonia	1. Metabolic acidosis
B. Pyloric stenosis	2. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Hyperventilation	3. Respiratory acidosis
D. Glycol poisoning	4. Respiratory alkalosis

Options:

A) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C

B) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A

C) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

D) 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C

Answer. A. 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C

Question. Benedict's test is positive with all of the following substances except:

A) Glucose

B) Fructose

C) Sucrose

D) Ascorbic acid

Answer. C. Sucrose

Question.  Which of the following enzymes are active in the dephosphorylated state during glucose metabolism

A. Glycogen Synthase

B. Glycogen phosphorylase

C. PFK-2

D. Fructose-2, 6- bisphosphatase

A) A and B

B) C and D

C) A and C

D) B and D

Answer. C. A and C

Question. Oncogene addiction refers to a phenomenon in which cancer cells:

A) Depend predominantly on a single oncogenic pathway for survival, allowing targeted against that pathway

B) Become resistant to all forms of chemotherapy

C) Develop due to addiction to carcinogenic substances

D) Simultaneously activate multiple tumour suppressor genes

Answer. A. Depend predominantly on a single oncogenic pathway for survival, allowing targeted against that pathway

Question.  Which of the following statements regarding hormones and their metabolic actions are correct?

A. Insulin increases protein synthesis

B. Thyroxine decreases basal metabolic rate

C. Insulin decreases blood glucose levels

D. Epinephrine increases glycogenolysis

E. Glucagon increases gluconeogenesis

A) A, B and C only

B) A, C and D only

C) A, C, D and E only

D) All of the above

Answer. C. A, C, D and E only

Question. Which of the following amino acid classifications are correctly matched?

A. Uncharged amino acid – Cysteine

B. Nonpolar amino acid – Proline

C. Basic amino acid – Histidine

D. Basic amino acid – Lysine

A) A and B

B) C and D

C) B and C

D) All of the above

Answer. D. All of the above

Topic: Dermatology

Question.  A neonate is brought with the lesion as shown in the image. The baby is feeding normally and has no fever, hypotension, or signs of shock. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

B. Bullous pemphigoid

C. Epidermolysis bullosa

D. Pemphigus due to transplacental antibodies

Answer. C. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

Question. A patient presents with a painless black necrotic lesion over the heel with surrounding edema, as shown in the image below. What is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

A. Skin biopsy

B. KOH smear

C. Gram stain

D. Tzanck smear

Answer. A. Skin biopsy

Topic : Physiology

Question.  Biphasic flow in the right coronary artery is due to:

A. High pressure in right ventricle

B. Low pressure in right ventricle

C. Increased aortic pressure

D. Increased right ventricular mass

Answer. B. Low pressure in right ventricle

Question. Increased permeability of glomerular capillaries will lead to the appearance of which of the following in urine?

A. Proteins

B. Glucose

C. Ketones

D. Uric acid

Answer. A. Proteins

Question. Renin is secreted in response to:

A. Elevated sodium load to macula densa

B. Elevated renal perfusion pressure

C. Reduced renal perfusion pressure

D. Increased extracellular fluid volume

Answer. C. Reduced renal perfusion pressure

Question. Emotional modulation of speech is a function of:

A. Lower part of the frontal lobe

B. Temporal lobe

C. Cingulate gyrus

D. Occipital lobe

Answer. C. Cingulate gyrus

Question. Which of the following cell junctions or junctional proteins are present in this specific structure marked with a black arrow?

A. Gap junctions

B. Cadherins

C. Hemidesmosomes

D. Tight junctions

Answer. A. Gap junctions

Question. Gs receptor is present in:

A. Alpha adrenergic receptor

B. Beta adrenergic receptor

C. M1 receptor

D. M2 receptor

Answer. Beta adrenergic receptor

Question. The graph shows the filterability of molecules across the glomerular capillary with respect to effective molecular radius. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Y has more filterability than X

B. X has less filterability than Y

C. X represents positively charged molecules

D. Y has more filterability than Z

Answer. D. Y has more filterability than Z

Question. Which of the following transporter activities is increased during oral rehydration therapy in diarrhoea?

A. CFTR

B. NHE

C. SGLT1

D. Na+–K+ ATPase

Answer. C. SGLT1

Question. Loss of hand–eye coordination is most commonly associated with a lesion of:

A. Temporal lobe

B. Parietal lobe

C. Occipital lobe

D. Frontal lobe

Answer. B. Parietal lobe

Question. Neuropraxia is caused by:

A. Physiological conduction block

B. Axons are cut

C. Neuron is cut

D. Complete nerve transection"

Answer. A. Physiological conduction block

INI CET 2026 Exam Pattern 

The candidates can see below the INI CET Exam pattern as notified in the information bulletin. The important consideration for the candidates is that there were two type of Multiple Choice Questions in the INI CET exam. There will be some questions where more than one answer will be correct. 
In addition to that, there were four sections in the paper and 45 minutes time limit was associated with each section. While attempting one section, no question from other section would appear on the screen.

INI CET Exam Pattern
Total Number of Questions	200
Maximum Marks in INI CET Exam	200
Total Sections in INI CET Exam	4
Time Limit for Each Section	45 Minutes
Questions in Each Section	50 Questions
Total Duration	180 Minutes
Is there Negative Marking in INI CET	Yes
Marks Allotted for Correct Answer	1
Marks Deducted for Incorrect Answer	1/3

The candidates should note that marks secured in 1 correct answer will be neutralised to zero by three incorrect answers and the result of those such four questions will be zero.