NEET PG Question Paper 2026 (Memory Based): Download PDF with Answers
National Eligibility cum Entrance Test for Post-Graduation 2026 ( NEET PG )
NEET PG 2026 Result
30 Sep '26
NEET PG 2026 question paper: Various coaching institutes has released the NEET PG question paper 2026 online. These questions are memory-based and unofficial. Candidates can use the NEET PG question paper with answer key to verify their answers and calculate their probable score. NBEMS shall not release the NEET PG answer key online. NEET PG exam was held on August 30 in CBT mode.
Those who are appearing for NEET PG 2026 exam can check the previous year question paper for revision. Solving the NEET PG PYQ will help to know the exam difficulty level and identify the high-weightage topics. Get the NEET PG question paper with answer key on this page.
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- NEET PG 2026 Question Pattern
- Benefits of solving NEET PG Question Paper
- NEET PG Question Paper: FAQs
NEET PG 2026 Memory Based Question
Candidates can check the memory-based NEET PG question paper here.
1.In case of substantial fetal abnormalities, MTP can be performed after the approval by the State medical board event at a gestational period of:
a) 20 weeks
b) 22 weeks
c) 24 weeks
d) 26 weeks
A known case of substance abuse is brought to emergency with respiratory depression, bradycardia, hypotension and pinpoint pupil. Which antipode should be given?
a) Naltrexone
b) Naloxone
c) Diazepam
d) Modafinil
Ans: B
A 42 year old man and his 28 year old wife present for preconception counselling. They have no significicant family history of genetic disorders. Which type of inheritance is classically associated with this phenomenon?
A Autosomal recessive
B. X-linked recessive
C. Autosomal dominant
D. Mitocondrial.
Ans. C
A 6 year old boy is diagnosed with Hemophilia A. There is no history of bleeding disorder in his father. Which of the following relatives is most likely to also be affected?
A. father
B. Father's brother
C. Mother's brother
C. Mother's Sister
Ans. D
A 6 year old child is presented with leukocoria. H & E image is an below. Which of the following is most likely promote malignant transformation?
A. RB1 gain of function
B. TP5 gain of function
C. TP53 loss of function
D. RB1 loss of function
Ans. D
A 36 year old man presented with recurrent renal stones and peptic ulcer disease. Evaluation reveals primary hyperparathyroidism, a pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor, and a pituitary adenoma. Which of the following statements in correct?
A. It is caused by a RET proto-oncogene mutation
B. Routine screening for meduallry thyroid carcinoma is mandatory
C. It is associated with mutation of the MEN1 tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 11
D. It is caused by mutation of the VHL gene on chromosome 3.
Ans. C
A 22 year old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding since menarche. Her mother has a similar history. She also reports recurrent epistaxis and easy bruising. Platelet count is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hemophilia A
B. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
C. Von Willebrand disease.
D. Factor XIII deficiency.
Ans. C
A 62 year old chronic smoker present with cough, weight loss, and hemoptysis. CT chest shows a central hilar mass. Biopsy reveals sheets of small round blue cells with scant cytoplasm, nuclear molding, finely granular chromatin, and extensive necrosis. Immunohistochemistry shows strong synaptophysin positivity. What is most likely diagnosis?
A Small Cell Carcinoma
B Adenocarcinoma
C Squamous Cell Carcinoma
D Large Cell Carninoma
Ans C
Polio with neutralizing antibiotics disappearing by 12-17 weeks (week not sure) Polio with neutralizing antibodies persisting for life A chart was given.
A. Polio with lifelong immunity
B. Polio with specific duration (some number were given)
C. Japanese encephalitis
D. Yellow Fever.
Lecturer divided the large group of people after the lecture into smaller groups to make them actively participate.
A. Active
B One to one communication
C Passive
D Demonstration
Ans. A
A patient presents with unilateral high pitched tinnitus and sensorineural hearing loss. A lesion involving the posterior aspect of the temporal bone is suspected. What is the gold standard investigation of choice?
A Echocardigraphy
B HRCT of the temporal bone
C BERA
D MRI gadolinium based of cerebellopontine angle
Ans. D
All Modalities use lonising Radiation except
A Ultrasound
B CT
C Fluroscopyl C-ARM
D XRay
Ans. A
Registration/Licensing of the Machine is required for all of the following expect:
A. XRay
B. Ct
C USG
D MRI
Ans. MRI
Ring-Shaped itchy skin lesion
A patient presents with mildly erythematous, pruritic, ring shaped lesions over the body. An image of lesion is shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Tinea corporis
B. Psoriasis
C. Pityriasis versicolor
D. Pityriasis rosea
Ans. A
Pityriasis versicolor - KoH appearance
A patient has pigmentary lesions suggestive of pityriasis versicolor. WHat is the characteristics appearance of KOH examination?
A. Claw-clutch appearance
B. Banana-and-grapes
C. Church-spire appearance
Ans. B.
Ecological classification of Trubrum
Trichophytion rubrum is primarily:
A. Geophilic
B. Zoophilic
C. Anthropophilic
D. Both geophilic and zoophilic
Ans. C
EHEC / HUS – Gold-standard confirmation
A patient develops bloody diarrhoea followed by hemolytic uremic syndrome. Which of the following is the gold-standard/confirmatory method for detection of the responsible toxin?
A. Sorbitol MacConkey agar
B. ELISA for Shiga toxin
C. Vero cell cytotoxicity assay
D. Routine MacConkey agar
Ans. C
Metronidazole-refractory giardiasis
A patient with giardiasis continues to have symptoms despite treatment with metronidazole. Which of the following may be used as an alternative treatment?
A. Nitazoxanide
B.
C. Spiramycin
D.
Ans. A
HIV patient + 4–6 µm organism
An HIV-positive patient presents with chronic watery diarrhoea. Stool examination demonstrates 4–6 µm acid-fast oocysts. Which organism is most likely?
A. Cyclospora cayetanensis
B. Cystoisospora belli
C. Cryptosporidium spp.
D. Giardia duodenalis
Ans. C
Cryptosporidium life cycle
Which statement is correct?
A. Humans acquire infection through skin penetration by larvae
B. Mosquito acts as the definitive host
C. Ingestion of sporulated oocysts initiates infection
D. An intermediate host is essential for completion of its life cycle
Ans. C
Cholera vs pertussis toxin
Which of the following correctly differentiates the actions of cholera and pertussis toxins?
A. Cholera inhibits Gi; pertussis activates Gs
B. Cholera activates Gsα; pertussis inhibits Giα
C. Both inhibit Gsα
D. Both directly inhibit adenylate cyclase
Ans. B
Rapid growth of C. diphtheriae
Which medium facilitates rapid growth/enrichment of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
A. Potassium tellurite agar
B. Tinsdale medium
C. Loeffler serum slope
D. Blood agar
Ans. C
Diphtheria toxin mechanism
What is the mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin?A. Activation of adenylate cyclase
B.
C.
D. ADP-ribosylation of EF-2
Ans. D
Selective medium for C. diphtheriae
Which medium is useful as a selective/differential medium for Corynebacterium diphtheriae?A. Loeffler serum slope
B. Tellurite-containing medium / Tinsdale medium
C. Lowenstein-Jensen medium
D. MacConkey agar
Ans. B
Waterhouse–Friderichsen syndrome
A patient with severe infection develops petechial/purpuric lesions and acute adrenal gland damage/hemorrhage. Which organism is the likely cause?A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Ans. C
Scrub typhus – organism + vector
A patient with a relevant travel history to Ladakh presents with fever and a characteristic eschar. Which combination of causative organism and vector is correct?A. Rickettsia prowazekii – body louse
B. Rickettsia typhi – rat flea
C. Orientia tsutsugamushi – trombiculid mite / chigger
D. Rickettsia rickettsii – hard tick
Ans. C
Erythema migrans – treatment
An image shows the characteristic erythema migrans lesion. What is the drug of choice?A. Azithromycin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Doxycycline
D. Metronidazole
Ans. C
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NEET PG 2026 Question Pattern
Students must be familiar with NEET PG exam pattern. This help to get familiar to the structure of question paper. Students can check the exam pattern of NEET PG and know the marking scheme. NEET PG exam pattern 2026 is mentioned below.
| Highlights |
|
|---|---|
| Mode of the examination |
Online |
| Medium of the examination |
English (only) |
| Duration of the examination |
3.5 hours |
| Total Marks |
800 |
| Number of questions |
200 |
| Type of questions |
Multiple-choice questions |
| Negative Marking |
Yes |
Benefits of solving NEET PG Question Paper
There are many advantages of solving previous years' question papers of NEET PG exam. Candidates can refer to some of the advantages given below:
- Students get familiar to exam difficulty level.
- Regular practice can help them to identify the high weightage topics and improve the speed to solve the problems.
- Students can self evaluate their performance and improve the weak sections.
- Solving the NEET PG PYQs are the best way to keep track on improvement.
Also Read
NEET PG Question Paper: FAQs
Check some of the FAQs related to NEET PG question paper:
500 plus marks is considered a decent score in NEET PG exam. If a candidate score 535 marks that means his/her rank will be somewhere around 1000-2000. With that score, there is a chance to get admission in government college. Good score also depends on difficulty level of the question paper. If the question paper is difficult then cut off will be low. In 2023-24 session, general category cut off was 291 while the cut off for SC/ST was 257. Overall 500 plus marks will enable you to get admission in good college for PG course.
No, candidates should answer only those questions where they feel confident about the right answer. The reason being there is a provision of negative marking in the NEET PG exam. Candidates are advised to choose not to answer rather than mark the wrong option. A negative score may take a toll on the overall score of a candidate.
NEET PG is a higher-level exam with a high level of competition. The NEET PG exam syllabus is extensive and covers all 19 subjects that a medico studies during the MBBS. The student's preparation time is also limited, and they must balance coursework and an internship.
This leaves little to no time to prepare for the NEET PG. A student works an internship at a hospital before the NEET PG exam, and the shifts are unpredictable. A lack of preparation time combined with intense competition makes NEET PG a difficult nut to crack. At the same time, it is not impossible task to score well in the exam. Candidates only need proper preparation, planning, and consistent efforts. What matters is that you believe in yourself and work towards your goal.
NBE doesn't release the weightage for NEET PG exam. However, from last few years record, it can be said that maximum weightage is given to clinical subjects. A good number of questions are asked from general medicine, general surgury and paediatrics. Lesser number of questions are asked from anatomy, physiology etc. Candidates must note weightage for NEET PG syllabus may vary. This is why, candidates are advised not to depend upon weightage and prepare all subjects of clinical, pre and para clinical well so that there is less scope of negative marking.
NEET PG 2025 question paper was difficult as compared to last year. The overall difficulty level of the question paper was moderate to difficult. More than 80 pecent questions were based on clinical scenerio. A good number of questions were asked from topics such as Surgury, Gynaecology (OBS GYNE) and other topics. 160-170 questions were easy to attempt.
No. Unlike NEET, NBE conducts NEET PG exam in computer-based mode. NEET PG pattern is declared by NBE along with the official information brochure. NEET PG pattern comprises details regarding mode and medium of exam, total number of questions, allotted time and marking scheme. As per the existing pattern, total 180 multiple choice questions are asked in NEET PG exam and candidates are provided 3.5 hours to answer them. Medium of the question paper is English only. There is no option to choose the language of the question paper. For every right answer, 4 marks is awarded and negative response -1 is deducted.
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