The memory-based NEET PG question paper and answer key is released online. Candidates can check them on this page after the official release. They can use the NEET PG question paper and answer key to verify their answer and know the probable score. Moreover, they can predict the NEET PG expected cutoff.
NEET PG Question Paper with Answer Key Solutions
NEET PG 2026 question paper with answer key solutions: NBEMS released the official NEET PG answer key 2026 online. Candidates can use the answer key to cross-check their responses and calculate the final score. NEET PG result 2026 was released on September 24. NBEMS does not release the NEET PG question paper 2026. The unofficial question paper for NEET PG 2026 is provided on this page. Candidates can refer to the NEET PG memory-based questions for exam preparation.
Moreover, candidates will get to know the exam difficulty level section-wise, marks vs rank, and expected NEET PG cutoff. The question paper is memory based prepare by various coaching institutes. NBEMS shall release the official NEET PG question paper with answer key online at natboard.edu.in. NEET PG 2026 exam was conducted on August 30, 2026, from 9 AM to 12: 30 PM.
Also Read: NEET PG 2026 Answer Key, Scorecard OUT Live Updates
- NEET PG 2026 Answer Key
- NEET PG 2026 Exam Highlights
- NEET PG 2026 Question Paper
NEET PG 2026 Answer Key
NBEMS has released the NEET PG answer key 2026 online. Candidates can download the NEET PG answer key online from the NBEMS website through the applicant login portal. They have to provide their login credentials, such as user ID and password. After downloading the NEET PG 2026 answer key, candidates must verify their responses and calculate the score using the marking scheme.
Download NEET PG 2026 Answer Key
Commonly asked questions
NEET PG pattern comprises details about exam mode, medium, total number of questions, allotted time, and marking scheme. NBE conducts NEET PG exam in computer-based mode. medium of exam is English only. Candidates don't have option to select any other language in NEET PG exam.
A total of 180 multiple choice questions are asked and candidates get 3.5 hours to answer them. According to marking scheme, for every right answer, 4 marks are awarded while for wrong response -1 mark is deducted. No mark will be awarded/deduced for unanswered question.
Hope this helped your query! All the best!
Objective questions are asked in NEET PG exam. tpe of the question is multiple choice where one question can have multiple answers. keeping this in mind, candidates have to select best option of correct response.
NEET PG mock test is designed in such a way that students get experience of the real exam. Its objective is to make students know the exam pattern in advance. They also get to know other details such as the total number of questions asked, etc., with the mock test. The mock test comprises 3 sections like the exam. Students get to know their strong and weak zones.
Formet refers to exam pattern. NEET PG exam is held in computer-based mode. A total of 200 multiple choice questions is asked in exam. As per official brochure, exam duration is 3.5 hours. Candidates get 4 marks for right answer and -1 for wrong response. As there is a negative marking in NEET PG exam, students should attempt only those questions where they feel confidence of right answers.
NEET PG 2026 Exam Highlights
| NEET PG exam date | August 30, 2026 |
| Mode of examination | Computer-Based Test (CBT) |
| Duration of examination | 3 hours and 30 minutes |
| Examination timing | 9 AM to 12:30 PM |
| Total marks | 720 |
| Number of questions | 180 multiple choice questions (MCQs) |
| Negative marking | Yes |
| Overall Difficulty Level | Moderate to Difficult |
| NEET PG answer key | October 1, 2026 |
Also Read: NEET PG marks vs rank | NEET PG cutoff for Government Colleges
Explore more Medicine & Health Sciences exams with upcoming dates
26 Oct '26
11 Dec '26 - 12 Dec '26
31 Dec '26
9 Feb '28
NEET PG 2026 Question Paper
The unofficial question paper for NEET PG 2026 will be available any time soon. If the official releases the NEET PG question paper, then the response sheet will be available online. Candidates will have to use the NEET PG question paper to verify their answers. The process to download the NEET PG question paper is provided below.NETE PG 2026.
NEET PG 2026 Memory Based Questions
4-year-old child came with asymptomatic small PDA and no growth abnormalities with no PAH. Best step in management?
A. Indomethacin
B. Surgical or catheter-based closure
C. Reassurance and yearly follow-up
D. Wait for symptoms to start.
Ans. B
A 9-year-old boy child came with low phosphate, normal calcium normal PTH and refractory rickets (bowing of legs). Normal nutritional status and balanced diet. Elder brother has the same clinical features; female sibling is normal. Renal phosphate reabsorption is less than 80%. Normal Arterial blood gas. Likely diagnosis.
A. Nutritional Rickets
B. Vitamin D DEPENDENT RICKETS
C. Hypophosphatemic Rickets
D. RTA
Ans. C
A 5 day newborn came with leukocytosis, HSM+, Thrombocytopenia, chorioretinitis and hearing loss with following lesion on skin.
A. Congenital CMV
B. Neuroblastoma
C. Congenital Leukemia Cutis
D. Congenital Mastocytosis.
A 2-year-old child came with weight of 8.2kg. There is history of feeding only Kanji (rice gruel). Child has following findings on examination. What's the diagnosis and management?
A. Isolated Vit d deficiency, Give calciferol
B. Moderate acute Malnutrition, Manage at Anganwadi with double ration
C. Severe calorie deficiency with no protein loss, manage at home calorie rich diet +Zn
D. Severe Protein-Energy Malnutrition, Admit to Nutritional Rehabilitation Centre
Ans. D
A patient was rescued from a building collapse both bilateral lower limb abarasion and can walk on his own, according to triage which colour code will you assign
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Green
d. Black
Ans. C
Q. In case of substantial fetal abnormalities, MTP can be performed after the approval by the State medical board event at a gestational period of:
a) 20 weeks
b) 22 weeks
c) 24 weeks
d) 26 weeks
Q. A known case of substance abuse is brought to emergency with respiratory depression, bradycardia, hypotension and pinpoint pupil. Which antipode should be given?
a) Naltrexone
b) Naloxone
c) Diazepam
d) Modafinil
Ans: B
Q. A 42 year old man and his 28 year old wife present for preconception counselling. They have no significicant family history of genetic disorders. Which type of inheritance is classically associated with this phenomenon?
A Autosomal recessive
B. X-linked recessive
C. Autosomal dominant
D. Mitocondrial.
Ans. C
A 6 year old boy is diagnosed with Hemophilia A. There is no history of bleeding disorder in his father. Which of the following relatives is most likely to also be affected?
A. father
B. Father's brother
C. Mother's brother
C. Mother's Sister
Ans. D
A 6 year old child is presented with leukocoria. H & E image is an below. Which of the following is most likely promote malignant transformation?
A. RB1 gain of function
B. TP5 gain of function
C. TP53 loss of function
D. RB1 loss of function
Ans. D
A 36 year old man presented with recurrent renal stones and peptic ulcer disease. Evaluation reveals primary hyperparathyroidism, a pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor, and a pituitary adenoma. Which of the following statements in correct?
A. It is caused by a RET proto-oncogene mutation
B. Routine screening for meduallry thyroid carcinoma is mandatory
C. It is associated with mutation of the MEN1 tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 11
D. It is caused by mutation of the VHL gene on chromosome 3.
Ans. C
A 22 year old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding since menarche. Her mother has a similar history. She also reports recurrent epistaxis and easy bruising. Platelet count is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hemophilia A
B. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
C. Von Willebrand disease.
D. Factor XIII deficiency.
Ans. C
A 62 year old chronic smoker present with cough, weight loss, and hemoptysis. CT chest shows a central hilar mass. Biopsy reveals sheets of small round blue cells with scant cytoplasm, nuclear molding, finely granular chromatin, and extensive necrosis. Immunohistochemistry shows strong synaptophysin positivity. What is most likely diagnosis?
A Small Cell Carcinoma
B Adenocarcinoma
C Squamous Cell Carcinoma
D Large Cell Carninoma
Ans C
A farmer presents with nail overgrowth/dystrophy. The causative organism is identified as Trichophyton rubrum. Based on its natural habitat, T. rubrim belongs to which group of dermatophhytes?
A geophilic
B Anthropophilic
C Zoophilic
Ans B.
Worker with bradykinesia rigidity h/o working in steel industry No h/o seizure
A. Carbon disulphides
B. Occupational disorder
C. Chronic arsenic
D. Manganese
Ans. D
Polio with neutralizing antibiotics disappearing by 12-17 weeks (week not sure) Polio with neutralizing antibodies persisting for life A chart was given.
A. Polio with lifelong immunity
B. Polio with specific duration (some number were given)
C. Japanese encephalitis
D. Yellow Fever.
Health education question.
Lecturer divided the large group of people after the lecture into smaller groups to make them actively participate.
A. Active
B One to one communication
C Passive
D Demonstration
Ans. A
A patient presents with unilateral high pitched tinnitus and sensorineural hearing loss. A lesion involving the posterior aspect of the temporal bone is suspected. What is the gold standard investigation of choice?
A Echocardigraphy
B HRCT of the temporal bone
C BERA
D MRI gadolinium based of cerebellopontine angle
Ans. D
All Modalities use lonising Radiation except
A Ultrasound
B CT
C Fluroscopyl C-ARM
D XRay
Ans. A
Registration/Licensing of the Machine is required for all of the following expect:
A. XRay
B. Ct
C USG
D MRI
Ans. MRI
Ring-Shaped itchy skin lesion
A patient presents with mildly erythematous, pruritic, ring shaped lesions over the body. An image of lesion is shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Tinea corporis
B. Psoriasis
C. Pityriasis versicolor
D. Pityriasis rosea
Ans. A
Pityriasis versicolor - KoH appearance
A patient has pigmentary lesions suggestive of pityriasis versicolor. WHat is the characteristics appearance of KOH examination?
A. Claw-clutch appearance
B. Banana-and-grapes
C. Church-spire appearance
Ans. B.
Ecological classification of Trubrum
Trichophytion rubrum is primarily:
A. Geophilic
B. Zoophilic
C. Anthropophilic
D. Both geophilic and zoophilic
Ans. C
A patient develops bloody diarrhoea followed by hemolytic uremic syndrome. Which of the following is the gold-standard/confirmatory method for detection of the responsible toxin?
A. Sorbitol MacConkey agar
B. ELISA for Shiga toxin
C. Vero cell cytotoxicity assay
D. Routine MacConkey agar
EHEC – Culture medium
Which medium is classically used to differentiate E. coli O157:H7 (EHEC) from most other E. coli?
A. MacConkey agar
B. Sorbitol MacConkey agar
C. TCBS agar
D. XLD agar
Ans. B
Metronidazole-refractory giardiasis
A patient with giardiasis continues to have symptoms despite treatment with metronidazole. Which of the following may be used as an alternative treatment?
A. Nitazoxanide
B.
C. Spiramycin
D.
Ans. A
HIV patient + 4–6 µm organism
An HIV-positive patient presents with chronic watery diarrhoea. Stool examination demonstrates 4–6 µm acid-fast oocysts. Which organism is most likely?
A. Cyclospora cayetanensis
B. Cystoisospora belli
C. Cryptosporidium spp.
D. Giardia duodenalis
Ans. C
Cryptosporidium life cycle
Which statement is correct?
A. Humans acquire infection through skin penetration by larvae
B. Mosquito acts as the definitive host
C. Ingestion of sporulated oocysts initiates infection
D. An intermediate host is essential for completion of its life cycle
Ans. C
Cholera vs pertussis toxin
Which of the following correctly differentiates the actions of cholera and pertussis toxins?
A. Cholera inhibits Gi; pertussis activates Gs
B. Cholera activates Gsα; pertussis inhibits Giα
C. Both inhibit Gsα
D. Both directly inhibit adenylate cyclase
Ans. B
Rapid growth of C. diphtheriae
Which medium facilitates rapid growth/enrichment of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
A. Potassium tellurite agar
B. Tinsdale medium
C. Loeffler serum slope
D. Blood agar
Ans. C
Diphtheria toxin mechanism
What is the mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin?
A. Activation of adenylate cyclase
B.
C.
D. ADP-ribosylation of EF-2
Ans. D
Selective medium for C. diphtheriae
Which medium is useful as a selective/differential medium for Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
A. Loeffler serum slope
B. Tellurite-containing medium / Tinsdale medium
C. Lowenstein-Jensen medium
D. MacConkey agar
Ans. B
Waterhouse–Friderichsen syndrome
A patient with severe infection develops petechial/purpuric lesions and acute adrenal gland damage/hemorrhage. Which organism is the likely cause?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Ans. C
Scrub typhus – organism + vector
A patient with a relevant travel history to Ladakh presents with fever and a characteristic eschar. Which combination of causative organism and vector is correct?
A. Rickettsia prowazekii – body louse
B. Rickettsia typhi – rat flea
C. Orientia tsutsugamushi – trombiculid mite / chigger
D. Rickettsia rickettsii – hard tick
Ans. C
Erythema migrans – treatment
An image shows the characteristic erythema migrans lesion. What is the drug of choice?
A. Azithromycin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Doxycycline
D. Metronidazole
Ans. C
Diphtheria toxin inhibits protein synthesis by which mechanism?
A. ADP-ribosylation of eEF-2
B. ADP-ribosylation of eEF-1
C. Removal of A nucleotide from 28s rRNA - Ricin
D. Inhibition of peptidyl transferase
Ans. A
A child presents with ↑ blood ammonia, ↑ urinary orotic acid and ↓ citrulline. The disorder is X-linked. Which enzyme is deficient?
A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPS-I)
B. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II (CPS-II)
C. Argininosuccinate synthetase (ASS)
D. Ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC)
Ans. D
News & Updates
Explore Other Exams
18 Jun '20 | Result (July 2020 session) |
11 Jun '20 | Exam day (July 2020 session) |
27 Jun '20 | |
21 Jun '20 | JIPMER PG 2020 Exam - July 202... |
3 Sep '26 - 19 Sep '26 | Round 2 Counselling |
5 Aug '26 - 1 Sep '26 | Round 1 Counselling |
14 Jan '27 - 31 Jan '27 | OJEE 2027 registrations |
22 Apr '27 - 30 Apr '27 | OJEE 2027 Admit Card Release |
Jun '26 | PU CET (UG) 2026 Counselling P... |
May '26 | PU CET (UG) 2026 Result |
18 Dec '26 | NTA CSIR NET December 2025 Exa... |
Jul '26 | NTA AIAPGET 2026 Exam Date |
Student Forum
Anything you would want to ask experts?Answered 18 hours ago
With 485 marks in NEET PG 2026, your eligibility depends on your All India Rank (AIR) and category, though a score of 485 comfortably clears the general qualifying cutoff (262 out of 720).
S
Contributor-Level 10
Answered 2 days ago
Yes, a 20K rank could be considered a good rank for admission to NITTE University to the MD and MS courses via the NEET PG exam. For the General AI category, the maximum admitted rank was 228775 for the MD course (MD in Physiology) and 69763 for the MS (MS in General Surgery) course via the NITTE Un
N
Contributor-Level 10
Answered a week ago
Hi.
The MD Forensic Medicine cut-off in NEET-PG 2026 is, honestly, one of the most rank-friendly in the entire MD table — which makes this para-clinical branch a serious government-college route for candidates sitting on a lower rank. NEET-PG 2026 results were declared by NBEMS on 24 September 2026,
h
Scholar-Level 17
Answered 3 weeks ago
Candidates can check the expected NEET PG 2026 qualifying marks below.
| Category | Qualifying Percentile | Expected Qualifying Marks |
| General | 50th | 295–315 |
| General PwBD | 45th | 275–295 |
| SC/ST/OBC (including PwBD) | 40th | 255–275 |
V
Contributor-Level 10
Answered 3 weeks ago
470 is an average mark in NEET PG. Candidates can qualify the exam but securing admission to the clinical courses is not possible.
V
Contributor-Level 10
Answered 3 weeks ago
NBEMS declared NEET PG 2026 result on September 24. NEET PG result link is activated on the website natboard.edu.in. Candidates can check their rank and marks obtained. They will also know the NEET PG cutoff marks.
V
Contributor-Level 10
Answered a month ago
The rank needed for MSU Baroda admission would depend on the category, round and course chosen. For the General AI category, the maximum rank accepted for admission was 75765 for the MD in Microbiology course. Hence, students need to attain a rank of at least 75765 to be eligible for admission. Refe
N
Contributor-Level 10
Answered a month ago
Yes, the NEET PG exam is tough. The exam is designed to test the knowledge of MBBS graduates in 19 subjects. Moreover, the number of seats are limited.
V
Contributor-Level 10
Answered a month ago
Yes, this is a decent rank in NEET PG. Candidates have a high chance of getting admission to the clinical seat in medical colleges.
V
Contributor-Level 10
Answered 2 months ago
Yes, NEET PG city intimation slip was released on August 11, 2026. Candidates can check the city intimation slip through login portal. They can know the exam city name through the NEET PG city intimation slip.
V
Contributor-Level 10