CLAT GK Questions (Must-Do) with Answers 2026 & Explanations

The General Knowledge (GK) section accounts for 25 per cent of the overall CLAT syllabus 2026. Its percentage itself highlights its importance in the exam. The CLAT 2026 current affairs syllabus comprises 4 to 6 passages, each approximately 450 words in length. Read further to know about CLAT GK Syllabus, CLAT Exam Pattern, GK Questions from CLAT previous year question paper with answers and explanations.

CLAT GK Questions 2026 With Answers and Explanations

The Consortium of National Law University will conduct the CLAT Exam 2026 on December 7, 2025. One of the most important components of the CLAT UG Exam is General Knowledge (GK) and Current Affairs section. Before starting CLAT GK Preparation, it is important to understand the CLAT Syllabus 2026.

The syllabus of CLAT GK 2026 checks the aspirant’s awareness of important national and international events. It also tests their ability to comprehend and infer information from diverse passages. CLAT preparation tips for Current Affairs & GK section are designed for every candidate aiming to score well in the section. Read further to know about CLAT GK Syllabus, CLAT Exam Pattern, GK Questions from CLAT previous year question paper with answers and explanations.

Also Read: How to clear CLAT 2026 in first attempt?

CLAT GK Syllabus 2026

The General Knowledge (GK) section accounts for 25 per cent of the overall CLAT syllabus 2026. Its percentage itself highlights its importance in the exam. The CLAT 2026 current affairs syllabus comprises 4 to 6 passages, each approximately 450 words in length. It must be noted that each passage is accompanied by 4 to 6 questions, which candidates must answer using only the information provided in the passage. The CLAT GK Section is divided into:

• Static GK: Those facts that do not change, for example, historical events or geographical features.
• Current Affairs: Any recent or important events, mostly from the last year or so.

Important Topics For CLAT GK Section

• National and International events
• Awards and Honors
• Appointments and Resignations
• Government Schemes and Policies
• Summits and Conferences
• Sports News
• Important Days and Themes
• Environmental and Scientific Developments
• History
• Geography
• Indian Polity
• General Science
• Art and Culture
• Economics

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CLAT 2026 GK Exam Pattern

Candidates can check CLAT Exam Pattern below:

Also Read: How to Prepare for CLAT 2026 without Coaching - Important Books, Strategy & Tips

CLAT GK Questions With Answers For Practice

Question 1. Chinese President Xi Jinping and Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi used a BRICS summit in Russia recently to showcase ambitions for a more harmonious relationship between the world’s two most populous countries after years of animosity. The meeting between Xi and Modi, who have not held formal talks for five years, was one highlight of a summit. BRICS also gave an opportunity to the Russian President Vladimir Putin for showcasing that the West had failed to isolate Russia over the Ukraine war. A final communique listed a number of projects aimed at facilitating trade between BRICS nations - including an alternative payment system to the dollar - but did not include details or timelines. Just two days after New Delhi announced that it had reached a deal with Beijing to resolve a four-year military stand-off on their disputed Himalayan frontier, Xi told Modi that they should enhance communication and cooperation and effectively manage differences. BRICS - an idea thought up inside Goldman Sachs two decades ago to describe the growing economic clout of China and other major emerging markets - is now a group that accounts for 45% of the world’s population and 35% of the global economy. Former Goldman Sachs economist Jim O’Neill, who coined the BRIC term in 2001, told Reuters that he had little optimism for the BRICS club as long as China and India remained so divided. “It seems to me basically to be a symbolic annual gathering where important emerging countries, particularly noisy ones like Russia, but also China, can basically get together and highlight how good it is to be part of something that doesn’t involve the U.S. and that global governance isn’t good enough,” The 43-page final communique from the summit ranged from geopolitics and narcotics to artificial intelligence and even the preservation of Big Cats, but lacked detail on some major issues. It mentioned Ukraine just once. (Excerpts from “Putin scores a BRICS win with rare Xi and Modi show of harmony” By Vladimir Soldatkin and Guy Faulconbridge , Reuters, October 23, 2024)

a. The 16th BRICS achieved the following:

(A) Launch of BRICS currency

(B) De scalation of Russian-Ukrainian conflict

(C) Diplomatic dialogue between India and China

(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: (C) Diplomatic dialogue between India and China

Explanation:

The passage reports that Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Chinese President Xi Jinping met during the BRICS summit after a five-year gap, indicating expectations of a better India-China relationship. It reports that only two days before the summit, New Delhi and Beijing reached an agreement to end a four-year military standoff along their border. The passage does not mention the launch of a BRICS currency or any development in the Russia-Ukraine conflict. Even though the summit communique mentioned projects covering trade, there was no mention of a new currency or a peace agreement in Ukraine. Therefore, the major achievement mentioned during the 16th BRICS summit is the diplomatic talk and cooperation between India and China.

b. What does the letter “S” in BRICS stand for?

(A) Saudi Arabia 

 (B) Singapore

(C) South America  

(D) South Africa

Correct Answer: (D) South Africa

Explanation: BRICS is an acronym for five leading emerging economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. The "S" denotes South Africa. Saudi Arabia and Singapore are not members of BRICS. South America is a continent, but not a country. Therefore, the "S" in BRICS denotes South Africa.

c. The initiative of Big Cats Alliance refers to:

(A) Lions, Tigers and Jaguar

(B) Tigers, Jaguar and Leopard

(C) Lions, Cheetah and Snow Leopard

(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation: The Big Cats Alliance generally means the overall conservation of major big cat species like lions, tigers, jaguars, leopards, cheetahs, and snow leopards. As the alliance focuses on the conservation of different big cat species from different parts of the world, all the combinations mentioned (A, B, and C) come under its purview. Hence, "All of the above" is the best answer.

d. Which statement reflects as a critique from the Western Economists ?

(A) BRICS currency cannot displace Dollars

(B) Asian economies will not impact western economy

(C) Indo-China conflicts will impact progress of BRICS

(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: (C) Indo-China conflicts will impact progress of BRICS

Explanation: The passage has a quote from Jim O'Neill, the economist who coined the term BRIC, doubting that the BRICS group will be effective as long as China and India are split. This is because the critique is that Indo-China clashes (conflicts between India and China) will influence the development of BRICS.

There is no reference in the passage that the BRICS currency will replace the dollar (there actually is a mention of there being no detail or timeline for any alternative payment system).

The passage does not state that Asian economies do not affect the Western economy.

Therefore, option (C) most accurately represents the criticism by Western economists according to the passage.

e. The emergence of BRICS signals:

(A) Asian consolidation of economic power

(B) Diminishing European dominance

(C) Revival of Nonaligned movement

(D) A geo-politics without US dominance

Correct Answer: (D) A geo-politics without US dominance

Explanation: The passage says that BRICS is a club that comprises leading emerging economies and is a group that "doesn't include the U.S." and identifies discontent with existing global governance, suggesting a shift toward a less-U.S.-dominated geopolitics. Although BRICS comprises Asian nations, it also comprises Brazil (South America) and South Africa (Africa), so it's not just about Asian consolidation.

The article does not say specifically that there was waning European hegemony or renewed Nonaligned Movement. Concentration on BRICS as a alternative to U.S.-dominated global governance is best explained by option (D).

Thus, the rise of BRICS marks a geopolitics short of US hegemony.

f. Which one of the below is an outcome of the 16th BRICS meeting?

 (A) Proposal to end Russia-Ukraine war

(B) To expand BRICS by including Scandinavian countries

(C) To recognise China’s claim of Taiwan

(D) Reducing tension between India and China

Correct Answer: (D) Reducing tension between India and China

Explanation: The passage states that only two days prior to the summit, India and China had an agreement to end a four-year military standoff on their contested Himalayan border. The summit meeting of Xi Jinping and Narendra Modi at the BRICS summit was intended to boost communication and cooperation, successfully overcoming differences. There is no word about any proposal to bring an end to the war between Russia and Ukraine, opening doors to accept Scandinavian countries, or accepting China's assertion on Taiwan. Thus, de-escalation of tension between India and China was a significant outcome of the 16th BRICS summit.

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Question 2: On the recommendation of Parliament, the President of India effectively abrogated Article 370 of the Indian Constitution and gave assent to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act, 2019. The former state of Jammu & Kashmir has been reorganized as the new Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and the new Union Territory of Ladakh on 31st October 2019. The new Union Territory of Ladakh consists of two districts of Kargil and Leh. The rest of the former State of Jammu and Kashmir is in the new Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir By 2019, the state government of former Jammu and Kashmir had reorganized the areas of these 14 districts into 28 districts. The names of the new districts are as follows - Kupwara, Bandipur, Ganderbal, Srinagar, Budgam, Pulwama, Shupian, Kulgam, Rajouri, Ramban, Doda, Kishtivar, Samba and Kargil. Out of these, Kargil district was carved out from the area of Leh and Ladakh district. The Leh district of the new Union Territory of Ladakh has been defined in the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization (Removal of Difficulties) Second Order, 2019, issued by the President of India, to include the areas of the districts of Gilgit, Gilgit Wazarat, Chilhas and Tribal Territory of 1947, in addition to the remaining areas of Leh and Ladakh districts of 1947, after carving out the Kargil District. [Extracted from the article of Press Information Bureau, published by the Union Home Ministry on 2nd November 2019]

a. Which of the following statements regarding Article 370 of the Constitution of India is correct?

(A) It gave special status to the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir

(B) It created a special tribunal for the state of Jammu and Kashmir on certain occasions

(C) It introduced Goods and Services Tax in Jammu and Kashmir

(D) It confers special jurisdiction on the Supreme Court on matters coming from Jammu & Kashmir

Correct Answer: (A) It gave special status to the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir

Explanation: Article 370 of the Indian Constitution gave special autonomous status to the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir so that it had its own constitution and was autonomous over all internal affairs except defense, foreign affairs, and communications. The paragraph states the abrogation of Article 370, which removed this special status. Thus, option (A) is accurate in explaining the importance of Article 370.

 b. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, divided the erstwhile State of Jammu and Kashmir into which of the following?

(A) 2 States  

(B) 1 State and 1 Union Territory

(C) 2 Union Territories

(D) 1 State and 2 Union Territories

Correct Answer: (C) 2 Union Territories

Explanation: The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 reorganised the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir into two distinct Union Territories:

• Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir
• Union Territory of Ladakh

No new states were formed, but only divided into two Union Territories as stated in the passage. Thus, option (C) is correct.

c. Which of the following Union Territories of India has a legislative assembly?

(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands 

(B) Jammu and Kashmir

(C) Daman and Diu 

(D) Lakshadweep

Correct Option: (B) Jammu and Kashmir

Explanation: Of the Union Territories, only Jammu and Kashmir and Delhi possess legislative assemblies. Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Daman and Diu, and Lakshadweep lack legislative assemblies.

d. How many States and Union Territories are present in India?

(A) 28 states and 8 Union territories

(B) 27 states and 8 Union territories

(C) 28 states and 7 Union territories

(D) 27 states and 7 Union territories

 Correct Answer: (A) 28 states and 8 Union territories

Explanation: Currently, India boasts 28 states and 8 Union Territories (Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh which became Union Territories in 2019).

 e. Which among the following is the capital city of the Union Territory of Ladakh?

(A) Leh

(B) Changtang

(C) Dras

(D) Nubra

Correct Answer: (A) Leh

Explanation: Leh is the Union Territory capital of Ladakh. Changtang, Dras, and Nubra are parts of Ladakh but not the capital.

f. Which of the following is false?

(A) Kargil was formerly a union territory

(B) Ladakh is administered by J&K assembly

(C) Fifteen new districts were formed to be part of J &K in 2019

(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: statement (B) is not correct

Explanation: (A) Kargil was never previously a Union Territory; it is a district in Ladakh.

(B) Ladakh has no legislative assembly and is not governed by the J&K assembly; it is governed directly by the center through a Lieutenant Governor.

(C) Fifteen new districts were created in J&K during 2019 — that is a fact.

Therefore, statement (B) is not correct.

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Question 3. The “Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam”, 2023 Act received near-unanimous support in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. The legislation mandates the reservation of one-third of all seats in the Lok Sabha, state legislative assemblies, and Delhi (as a union territory with an elected assembly) for women. This linking of the implementation of the Act to the implementing of two long-term exercises of census and delimitation, makes little sense to many, and sounds quite like empowerment delayed for now. In a 2012 article ‘Holding Up Half the Sky: Reservations for Women in India’, Rudolf C Heredia breaks down the common misconceptions that cloud our understanding of women’s political participation- “When women do attain a national leadership role it is often because they have inherited the mantle from their fathers or husbands, rather than as persons in their own right and are then projected as matriarchs, part of the joint family, complementary to the patriarchy rather than a challenge to it.” * 12 uG In ‘Equality versus Empowerment: Women in Indian Legislature’, 2023, Soumya Bhowmick makes the case for going a step beyond quotas, and to turn our attention to the complexities that shape women’s agency in the country. This, he argues, would require a bottoms-up approach, rather than merely handing out reservations in a top-down manner. “In a country like India with a considerably large heterogeneous population, the dissemination of legislative power would be insufficient to protect the interests of minority groups such as women, Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes.” He concludes that “implementing the idea of reservation for women would bring about descriptive representation, but its transformation into substantive representation would depend on the change in the attitudes of the people.” While the reservation of one-third of seats for women belonging to the scheduled castes and tribes under the amendment to article 330a and 332 of the constitution is a welcome step, it remains to be seen whether it fully acknowledges the complex interplay of hierarchies, socio-political relationships which also affect the extent and nature of complications that surround effective realisation of women’s politics for Indian politics to emerge as a truly emancipatory space.

a. The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam 2023:

(A) Will come to force from Jan 2025

(B) Will come to force after all the States and UTs approve it

(C) Will come to force after Census

(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C) Will come to force after Census

Explanation: The passage clearly states that the application of the Act is contingent upon the two exercises of census and delimitation over the long term, and this delay has been criticised. Thus, the Act will take effect only when the next Census is conducted and followed by the delimitation of the constituencies.

b. As per Rudolf Heredia women’s political leadership depends upon :

(A) Mentorship of spouse’s political affiliations

(B) Parental guidance

(C) Property inheritance

(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (A) Mentorship of spouse’s political affiliations

Explanation:  Heredia states that women tend to reach leadership positions due to inheritance from their husbands or fathers, rather than through struggle or their own merit. This is an instance of political patronage or guidance as a function of spouse or family legacy, so (A) is the correct answer.

c. According to Soumya Bhowmick the quotas for women should:

(A) Require a top down model

(B) Fulfill a descriptive representation

(C) Transform to substantive representation

(D) To be implemented homogeneously

Correct Answer: (C) Transform to substantive representation

Explanation: Soumya Bhowmick asserts that mere descriptive representation (merely holding seats) is insufficient; what is required is substantive representation, that is, actual empowerment and impact, which is contingent on social attitudes changing. Therefore, (C) is the correct answer.

 d. The amendment to the Art. 330 (a) & 332 aims to:

(A) Appoint Rajya Sabha members based on cultural diversity

(B) Quota for women Governors

(C) Women sportspersons

(D) None of the above

 Correct Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation: Article 330(a) and 332 have been modified to reserve one-third of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies for women of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The alternatives (A), (B), and (C) are irrelevant to the substance or purpose of the amendment. Thus, the right option is (D) None of the above.

Question 4: During the First World War, Indian merchants and industrialists wanted protection against imports of foreign goods, and a rupee-sterling foreign exchange ratio that would discourage imports. To organise business interests, they formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920 and the Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927. The industrialists attacked colonial control over the Indian economy, and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement when it was first launched. They gave financial assistance and refused to buy or sell imported goods. After the failure of the Round Table Conference, business groups were no longer uniformly enthusiastic. They were apprehensive of the spread of militant activities, and worried about prolonged disruption of business, as well as of the growing influence of socialism amongst the younger members of the Congress. The industrial working classes did not participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement in large numbers, except in the Nagpur region. As the industrialists came closer to the Congress, workers stayed aloof. But inspite of that, some workers did participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement, selectively adopting some of the ideas of the Gandhian programme, like boycott of foreign goods, as part of their own movements against low wages and poor working conditions. There were strikes by railway workers in 1930 and dockworkers in 1932. In 1930, thousands of workers in Chotanagpur tin mines wore Gandhi caps and participated in protest rallies and boycott campaigns. But the Congress was reluctant to include workers’ demands as part of its programme of struggle. It felt that this would alienate industrialists and divide the anti-imperial forces. Another important feature of the Civil Disobedience Movement was the large-scale participation of women. During Gandhiji’s salt march, thousands of women came out of their homes to listen to him. They participated in protest marches, manufactured salt, and picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops. Many went to jail. [Excerpt from Chapter II - Nationalism in India, India and the Contemporary World, NCERT]

a. Which event in Indian history marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement?

(A) Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement

(B) Commencing of Dandi March

(C) Signing of Gandhi-Irwin Pact

(D) Withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement

Correct Answer: (B) Commencing of Dandi March

Explanation: The Civil Disobedience Movement began with Gandhiji’s Dandi March in March 1930, where he broke the salt law. The passage also references this by mentioning women's participation during Gandhiji’s salt march.

b. Which of the following is true in the context of civil disobedience movement?

(A) The Indian industrialist preferred partnership with MNCs

(B) The Indian industrialist were concerned of disruption of business

(C) The working class rejected the civil disobedience movement

(D) The Round Table Conference was a partial success

Correct Answer: (B) The Indian industrialists were concerned of disruption of business

Explanation: The passage states that after the failure of the Round Table Conference, business groups were apprehensive about militant activities, business disruptions, and socialism, which made them less enthusiastic about the movement.

c. Which of the following was the predicament for Congress?

(A) Danger of division of opposition to the British Government

(B) Loss of faith by marginalised sections in Congress

(C) Falling value of Rupee against Sterling

(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (A) Danger of division of opposition to the British Government

Explanation: Congress was hesitant to adopt workers' demands, lest it lose the support of industrialists and fragment anti-imperial forces, as is mentioned in the passage.

d. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the Civil Disobedience Movement?

(A) It encouraged militancy among workers

(B) Breaking of the salt law, manufacturing salt, and demonstrating it in front of government salt factories

(C) It urged the industrialists to accept socialism

(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: (B) Breaking of the salt law, manufacturing salt, and demonstrating it in front of government salt factories

Explanation: The essence of the Civil Disobedience Movement lay in defying colonial laws, particularly the salt law. This was allegorised through protest marches and salt manufacturing.

e. Which among the following mass movement was supported by the Indian industrialists?

(A) Home Rule Movement

(B) Civil Disobedience Movement

(C) Non-Cooperation Movement

(D) Quit India Movement

Correct Answer: (B) Civil Disobedience Movement

Explanation: As stated in the passage, the industrialists aided the Civil Disobedience Movement initially by offering money and boycotting foreign-made goods.

f. Which of the following can be considered as major outcome of civil disobedience movement?

(A) A partial support of working class

(B) Galvanising women in political sphere

(C) Socialistic influence among the Congress cadre

(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation:

All three options are indicated by the passage:

(A) Partial support of the working class particularly in areas such as Nagpur and Chotanagpur.

(B) Mobilising women in political arena women took part actively in protests, salt production, and picketing.

(C) Socialistic influence within the Congress cadre referred to as an anxiety of industrialists because of increasing socialistic influence within the younger Congress leaders.

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Question 5. In keeping with the slogan for this year’s Olympics, “Games Wide Open,” the opening ceremony took place outside a stadium setting by the river for the first time. In many respects, the Paris Games turned out to be one of the most elaborate cultural rituals since Covid swept across the world beginning in late 2019. Health restrictions forced the organizers of Tokyo 2020 and Beijing 2022 to sharply limit the scale of the festivities, with events largely closed to the public. Paris 2024, powered in part by pent-up demand for communal experiences, symbolized an international post-pandemic vibe shift. The International Olympic Committee and French officials managed strict security measures in place. Yet the recent history of violence in France — including the 2015 terror attack in Paris that left 138 people dead and at least 416 injured — stalked public consciousness prior to the games. The geopolitical backdrop for the Paris Games was no less troubling. The war between Israel and Hamas which had crossed the six-month mark, raised fears of a protracted conflict and wider regional instability.

The devastation in the Gaza Strip has provoked international outrage, isolating Israel on the global stage. Meanwhile, Russia continues to gain ground in its military offensive against Ukraine as some Western nations worry about the rise of authoritarianism. These international crises raised serious concerns that could come into play during the Games in the form of protests and other political demonstrations. Nevertheless, Olympics organizers put up a show that stunned the throngs assembled on the boulevards of Paris, not to mention the millions of people who watched the Games unfold on their televisions and mobile devices. At the Paris 2024 Olympics, India secured a total of six medals: one silver and five bronze which was one down from the highest haul of medals from the previous Olympics. Neeraj Chopra earned a silver in men’s javelin with an 89.45 throw, narrowly missing gold to Pakistan’s Arshad Nadeem.

Shooter Manu Bhaker made history by clinching bronze in the women’s 10’m air pistol, becoming the first Indian woman to win a medal in Olympic shooting. The men’s hockey team achieved a second consecutive bronze, defeating Spain 2-1, with captain Harmanpreet Singh scoring both goals. (Extracted, with edits and revision, from “The Olympics are nearly here. For a weary world, they can’t come soon enough”, NBCNEWS)

a. India won a back-to-back Olympics hockey medal at:

(A) Beijing and Paris

(B) Rio and Beijing

(C) Beijing and Tokyo

(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C) Beijing and Tokyo

Explanation: The passage states that the Indian men's hockey team gained a second successive bronze at Paris 2024. The last Olympics were Tokyo 2020, and prior to that, it was Beijing 2008 when India last won a bronze after a long lapse. But Tokyo 2020 was the first in recent times when India had won a bronze, so the consecutive medals at Beijing and Tokyo are incorrect for recent times.

Given choices, (C) Beijing and Tokyo is the most appropriate choice historically for India's consecutive medals in hockey prior to Paris. Technically, though, it's Tokyo 2020 and Paris 2024 for the latest consecutive medals, but not among the given choices.

b. According to the passage, what is the peculiarity of the Paris Olympics, 2024?

(A) It symbolised an international post-pandemic vibe shift

(B) The opening ceremony took place outside a stadium

(C) It is one of the most elaborate cultural rituals since Covid

(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation:

The opening ceremony was held outside a stadium for the first time (by the river). The Games represented an international post-pandemic mood shift.

It was reported as one of the most complex cultural rituals post-Covid. All of these are noted in the passage, so (D) is right.

c. Which of the following incidents support the argument that “the geopolitical backdrop for the Paris Games is no less troubling”?

(A) Israel-Hamas conflict

(B) The immigrant influx in to Europe

(C) Political stability of French government

(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: (A) Israel-Hamas conflict

Explanation:

The passage clearly states the Israel-Hamas conflict, Russia-Ukraine war, and fears of authoritarianism as part of the geopolitical context.

Immigrant inflow or French political stability were not mentioned in this place.

d. Which one of the following is true?

(A) Tokyo Olympics was better than Beijing Olympics

(B) Spectators thronged for a post Covid sporting experience

(C) Olympic games are unaffected by conflicts in a region

(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: (B) Spectators thronged for a post Covid sporting experience

Explanation:

The passage quotes pent-up demand for shared experience and crowds queuing up the Games in Paris, contrary to Tokyo and Beijing where the party was restricted by Covid restrictions.

Options (A) and (C) are not mentioned or authenticated.

e. The highest Olympic medal tally for India was at:

(A) Beijing  

(B) Rio

(C) London  

(D) Tokyo

Correct Answer: (D) Tokyo

Explanation: According to the passage, India bagged six medals at Paris 2024, one short of its best ever haul from the last Olympics, meaning Tokyo 2020.

f. Where is the opening ceremony of the Paris Olympics, 2024, held?

(A) Seine River 

 (B) Versailles Palace

(C) Eiffel Tower 

(D) Arc de Triomphe

Correct Answer: (A) Seine River

Explanation: The sentence clearly states the opening ceremony was held outside a stadium along the river for the very first time, as it was along the Seine River in Paris.

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